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Class 8

Mathematics

CBSE Class 8 Mathematics – Sample Question Paper (2024–25)

Subject: Mathematics
Class: 8
Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. The question paper is divided into four sections A, B, C, and D.
  3. Use of a calculator is not permitted.
  4. Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
  5. Marks are indicated against each question.

Section A (1 × 6 = 6 Marks)

Very Short Answer Questions – Attempt all questions. Each carries 1 mark.

  1. Fill in the blank: The cube of an even number is always _____.
  2. Write the additive inverse of −79\frac{-7}{9}9−7​.
  3. Find the value of 32×333^2 \times 3^332×33.
  4. Which quadrilateral has one pair of opposite sides parallel?
  5. State whether the graph of a constant function is a straight line or a curve.
  6. Simplify: (3x+2)2−(3x−2)2(3x + 2)^2 – (3x – 2)^2(3x+2)2−(3x−2)2

Section B (2 × 6 = 12 Marks)

Short Answer Type I – Attempt all questions. Each carries 2 marks.

  1. Solve the linear equation:
    4x−5=3x+24x – 5 = 3x + 24x−5=3x+2
  2. Write any two properties of rational numbers under multiplication.
  3. A cube has a volume of 729 cm3729 \, cm^3729cm3. Find the side of the cube.
  4. Represent the equation y=2x+3y = 2x + 3y=2x+3 on a graph paper (only tabular values needed here).
  5. Find the square root of 0.04 using the long division method.
  6. Convert: 12.5% into fraction and decimal.

Section C (3 × 8 = 24 Marks)

Short Answer Type II – Attempt all questions. Each carries 3 marks.

  1. Find the area of a trapezium whose parallel sides are 12 cm and 16 cm, and the height is 10 cm.
  2. Factorise the expression:
    x2+5x+6x^2 + 5x + 6×2+5x+6
  3. Find the amount and compound interest on ₹5000 for 2 years at 10% per annum compounded annually.
  4. Using appropriate identities, simplify:
    (a+b)2−(a−b)2(a + b)^2 – (a – b)^2(a+b)2−(a−b)2
  5. A car covers a distance of 120 km in 3 hours. How long will it take to cover 200 km at the same speed?
  6. In the given data: 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, find the mean, median and mode.
  7. Write any three properties of a parallelogram.
  8. Find the value of:
    (25)0+5−1\left( \frac{2}{5} \right)^0 + 5^{-1} (52​)0+5−1

Section D (4 × 8 = 32 Marks)

Long Answer Type – Attempt all questions. Each carries 4 marks.

  1. Draw a bar graph of the following data:
Favourite SubjectNo. of Students
Maths40
Science30
English20
Hindi25
Social Science15
  1. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 240 m and its length is 70 m. Find its width and area.
  2. Factorise:
    x3+64x^3 + 64×3+64
  3. A shopkeeper buys an article for ₹200 and sells it for ₹250. Find the profit percent. If he had sold it for ₹180, find the loss percent.
  4. The following table gives the number of students in a school using different modes of transport. Represent the data using a pie chart.
    (Do not draw the chart; write steps of calculation.)
Mode of TransportNo. of Students
Bicycle180
Bus270
Car90
Walk60
  1. Write the cubes of first five natural numbers. Using them, verify:
    (a+b)3=a3+b3+3ab(a+b)(a + b)^3 = a^3 + b^3 + 3ab(a + b)(a+b)3=a3+b3+3ab(a+b) for a=1,b=2a = 1, b = 2a=1,b=2
  2. A 25 m long wire is to be cut into pieces of equal length. What will be the length of each piece if 5 such pieces are obtained? Is this a case of direct or inverse proportion?
  3. Draw a line graph for the following data:
    (Only provide coordinate points and scale.)
    Months vs Rainfall (in mm)
  • January: 20
  • February: 40
  • March: 60
  • April: 30

Answer Key / Marking Scheme

Section A (1 mark each)

  1. Even
  2. 79\frac{7}{9}97​
  3. 35=2433^5 = 24335=243
  4. Trapezium
  5. Straight Line
  6. 24x24x24x

Section B (2 marks each)

  1. x=7x = 7x=7
  2. Closure and multiplicative identity
  3. Side = 7293=9 cm\sqrt[3]{729} = 9 \, cm3729​=9cm
  4. Points: (0,3), (1,5), (2,7)
  5. 0.04=0.2\sqrt{0.04} = 0.20.04​=0.2
  6. 18,0.125\frac{1}{8}, 0.12581​,0.125

Section C (3 marks each)

  1. 12×(12+16)×10=140 cm2\frac{1}{2} \times (12+16) \times 10 = 140 \, cm^221​×(12+16)×10=140cm2
  2. (x+2)(x+3)(x + 2)(x + 3)(x+2)(x+3)
  3. A = ₹6050, CI = ₹1050
  4. 4ab4ab4ab
  5. Speed = 40 km/h; Time = 5 hours
  6. Mean = 20, Median = 20, Mode = No mode
  7. Opposite sides equal, opposite angles equal, diagonals bisect each other
  8. 1+15=651 + \frac{1}{5} = \frac{6}{5}1+51​=56​

Section D (4 marks each)

  1. Bar graph with proper scale and labeling.
  2. Width = 50 m, Area = 3500 m²
  3. x3+64=(x+4)(x2−4x+16)x^3 + 64 = (x + 4)(x^2 – 4x + 16)x3+64=(x+4)(x2−4x+16)
  4. Profit% = 25%, Loss% = 10%
  5. Total = 600; Angles: 108°, 162°, 54°, 36°
  6. Cubes: 1, 8, 27, 64, 125; Verify both sides = 27
  7. Length of each = 5 m; Direct proportion
  8. Coordinates: (1,20), (2,40), (3,60), (4,30); Line graph shows trend.

English

CBSE Class 8 English Sample Paper (2024–25)

Subject: English
Class: 8
Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. Attempt all questions in the given order.
  3. Read the questions carefully before answering.
  4. Write neatly and attempt all parts of a question together.

Section A: Reading (10 Marks)

Q1. Read the following passage and answer the questions below: (5 marks)
One of the most amazing abilities of birds is migration. Every year, millions of birds fly thousands of kilometers to find the best ecological conditions and habitats for feeding, breeding, and raising their young. When the conditions at breeding sites become unfavourable, they migrate to regions where conditions are better.

(a) What is migration? (1)
(b) Why do birds migrate? (1)
(c) When do birds migrate? (1)
(d) Give a synonym for the word “unfavourable”. (1)
(e) Write one noun and one verb from the passage. (1)

Q2. Read the following poem extract and answer the questions: (5 marks)
“Some books are to be tasted, others to be swallowed, and some few to be chewed and digested.” – Francis Bacon

(a) What does the poet mean by “books to be tasted”? (1)
(b) What does “chewed and digested” refer to? (1)
(c) What is the central idea of the quote? (1)
(d) Identify one metaphor used. (1)
(e) Write a suitable title for this extract. (1)

Section B: Writing (15 Marks)

Q3. Write a story in about 120–150 words based on the following cues: (5 marks)
A lost puppy — raining — a kind stranger — home — reunion with owner

Q4. Write a diary entry describing your feelings after achieving a personal goal (100–120 words). (5 marks)

**Q5. You are the head student of your school. Draft a notice in about 50 words for a Debate Competition to be held in your school auditorium. (5 marks)

Section C: Grammar (15 Marks)

Q6. Do as directed: (1×5 = 5 marks)
(a) He will complete the project in time. (Change to passive voice)
(b) “I am not feeling well,” said Rina. (Change to indirect speech)
(c) Choose the correct form: She __________ (go/goes) to the gym every morning.
(d) Identify the adverb: She sang beautifully.
(e) Combine the two sentences using a suitable conjunction: He worked hard. He did not succeed.

**Q7. Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions: (1×4 = 4 marks)
(a) The cat is hiding ___ the table.
(b) He walked ___ the room silently.
(c) The book is ___ the shelf.
(d) We waited ___ the bus stop for an hour.

Q8. Match the idioms with their meanings: (1×3 = 3 marks)

IdiomMeaning
(a) Once in a blue moon(i) To be very happy
(b) Over the moon(ii) Very rarely
(c) Break the ice(iii) Start a conversation

Q9. Identify the type of noun and pronoun in the following sentence: (1×3 = 3 marks)
“Ravi gave it to Neha yesterday.”
(a) Ravi – ________
(b) It – ________
(c) Neha – ________

Section D: Literature (40 Marks)

Honeydew Textbook

Q10. Answer the following questions in 30–40 words each (Any 4): (4×3 = 12 marks)
(a) What was the ‘best Christmas present in the world’?
(b) What message does The Ant and the Cricket convey?
(c) How did the geography teacher explain the city’s structure in Geography Lesson?
(d) Why did Bepin Babu feel that Chunilal had nothing to gain by playing a trick on him?
(e) What was the lesson learnt by the narrator in The Summit Within?

**Q11. Answer any one in 80–100 words: (6 marks)
How does The Tsunami show both the destructive power of nature and the courage of human beings?

**Q12. Read the extract and answer the questions: (4 marks)
“A bargain is a bargain,” said the man.
“But I want nothing in return.”

(a) Who is the speaker here?
(b) What kind of bargain does the speaker want?
(c) What is the tone of this poem?
(d) Write one figure of speech used in the poem.

It So Happened Supplementary Reader

Q13. Answer the following questions in 30–40 words each (Any 4): (4×3 = 12 marks)
(a) Why did the camel develop a hump in How the Camel Got His Hump?
(b) How did the children in Children at Work show compassion?
(c) What happened to the giant’s heart in The Selfish Giant?
(d) Why did Swami say he had to go home in The Fight?
(e) What moral does The Treasure Within convey?

**Q14. Answer any one in 80–100 words: (6 marks)
Discuss the relevance of Ancient Education System of India in today’s modern educational practices.

Answer Key / Marking Scheme

Section A: Reading

  1. (a) Long-distance travel by birds
    (b) To find better conditions for living
    (c) When conditions become harsh
    (d) Adverse
    (e) Noun: migration; Verb: fly
  2. (a) Skimmed or briefly read books
    (b) Books that need deep understanding
    (c) Not all books are of equal value
    (d) Tasting/swallowing books = metaphor
    (e) The Value of Reading

Section B: Writing

  • Story: Clear structure, creative development
  • Diary: First person, emotional reflection
  • Notice: Format (heading/date/body/signature), clarity

Section C: Grammar

  1. (a) The project will be completed by him in time.
    (b) Rina said that she was not feeling well.
    (c) goes
    (d) beautifully
    (e) but
  2. (a) under
    (b) across
    (c) on
    (d) at
  3. (a) – (ii)
    (b) – (i)
    (c) – (iii)
  4. (a) Proper noun
    (b) Personal pronoun
    (c) Proper noun

Section D: Literature

Honeydew Short Answers (examples):
(a) A letter from a soldier found in an old desk
(b) Importance of hard work and planning
(c) Geography doesn’t explain city’s haphazard structure
(d) He was a trusted old friend
(e) Inner strength and courage matter most

Q11: Destruction shown by waves; courage shown by brave survivors, including kids and volunteers.

Q12:
(a) The man offering the bargain
(b) One that gives him freedom, not material wealth
(c) Reflective
(d) Metaphor

It So Happened Short Answers (examples):
(a) As a punishment for being lazy
(b) Helped a child earn a living
(c) It softened on meeting the little boy
(d) Excuse to avoid fighting
(e) True wealth lies in talent and creativity

Q14: Emphasizes teacher-student bond, holistic education, and discipline—still vital today.

Hindi

CBSE Class 8 Hindi Sample Paper (2024–25)

Subject: Hindi
Class: VIII
Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. Attempt all questions in the sequence.
  3. Answer as per the word limits given.
  4. Neat and clean handwriting will be awarded.

खंड – अ (पाठ्यपुस्तक आधारित प्रश्न)

(Section A: Literature – 30 Marks)

प्रश्न 1: (Vasant – 10 Marks)

(क) लाख की चूड़ियाँ पाठ में ममता और त्याग का उदाहरण दीजिए। (2 अंक)
(ख) कबीर की सखियाँ में से किसी एक साखी की व्याख्या अपने शब्दों में कीजिए। (2 अंक)
(ग) अकबरी लोटा कहानी में हास्य का कौन-कौन सा पक्ष देखने को मिलता है? (2 अंक)
(घ) पानी की कहानी पाठ में पानी की उपयोगिता को किस प्रकार दर्शाया गया है? (2 अंक)
(ङ) निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए (लंबा उत्तर – 2 अंक):
(i) सूर के पद में भक्ति की विशेषता क्या है?
(ii) यह सबसे कठिन समय नहीं कविता में कवि का आशय क्या है?

प्रश्न 2: (Durva – 10 Marks)

(क) दो गोरैया पाठ से लेखक ने क्या संदेश दिया है? (2 अंक)
(ख) सस्ते का चक्कर पाठ में ‘सस्ता’ कब महंगा साबित होता है, स्पष्ट कीजिए। (2 अंक)
(ग) हिंदी ने जिनकी जिंदगी बदल दी पाठ में लेखक की हिंदी के प्रति भावना स्पष्ट कीजिए। (2 अंक)
(घ) आषाढ़ का पहला दिन पाठ के आधार पर बताइए कि वर्षा ऋतु का वातावरण लेखक को कैसा अनुभव होता है। (2 अंक)
(ङ) निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए (लंबा उत्तर – 2 अंक):
(i) आओ पत्रिका निकालें पाठ में बच्चों के लिए पत्रिका निकालने का महत्व क्या है?
(ii) उठ किसान ओ पाठ में किसान को क्यों जागने के लिए कहा गया है?

प्रश्न 3: (Bharat ki Khoj – 5 Marks)

(क) अहमदनगर का किला पाठ में नेहरू जी ने जेल को किस प्रकार का अनुभव बताया है? (2 अंक)
(ख) सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता पाठ में उस समय की नगर योजना का क्या महत्व था? (2 अंक)
(ग) ‘नयी समस्याएँ’ पाठ के आधार पर भारत के सामने कौन-कौन सी नई चुनौतियाँ थीं? (1 अंक)

प्रश्न 4: (Sankshipt Buddhacharita – 5 Marks)

(क) ज्ञान प्राप्ति अध्याय में सिद्धार्थ को बुद्ध बनने के लिए कौन-कौन सी कठिनाइयों का सामना करना पड़ा? (2 अंक)
(ख) महापरिनिर्वाण का अर्थ और उसका महत्व स्पष्ट कीजिए। (2 अंक)
(ग) धर्मचक्र प्रवर्तन का क्या अर्थ है? (1 अंक)

खंड – ब (व्याकरण)

(Section B: Grammar – 15 Marks)

प्रश्न 5: रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए: (1×5 = 5 अंक)

(क) सत्य की ___ होती है।
(ख) सूरज ___ चमक रहा है।
(ग) विद्यार्थी पढ़ाई ___ लगे हुए हैं।
(घ) राम और श्याम ___ स्कूल जा रहे हैं।
(ङ) बड़ों का आदर करना हमारा ___ है।

प्रश्न 6: वाक्य परिवर्तन कीजिए (कृया के अनुसार): (1×3 = 3 अंक)

(क) वह मिठाई खा रहा है। (प्रेरणार्थक वाक्य)
(ख) मैं कल बाज़ार गया। (नकारात्मक वाक्य)
(ग) गंगा भारत की पवित्र नदी है। (प्रश्नवाचक वाक्य)

प्रश्न 7: सही विकल्प चुनिए: (1×4 = 4 अंक)

(क) ‘गृहस्थ’ शब्द का सही अर्थ है:
(i) गृह निर्माण करने वाला
(ii) विवाह कर चुका व्यक्ति
(iii) गृह में रहने वाला
(iv) गृहकार्य करने वाला

(ख) ‘पृथ्वी’ शब्द है:
(i) पुल्लिंग
(ii) स्त्रीलिंग
(iii) नपुंसक लिंग
(iv) कोई नहीं

(ग) विलोम शब्द चुनिए: उदय
(i) अस्त
(ii) आकाश
(iii) सूर्य
(iv) ग्रहण

(घ) कर्म शब्द का पर्यायवाची है:
(i) फल
(ii) कार्य
(iii) इच्छा
(iv) श्रम

प्रश्न 8: मुहावरे का अर्थ लिखकर वाक्य बनाइए: (1×3 = 3 अंक)

(क) नाक में दम करना
(ख) मुँह की खाना
(ग) आँखें दिखाना

खंड – स (लेखन कौशल)

(Section C: Writing – 15 Marks)

प्रश्न 9: किसी एक विषय पर 100–120 शब्दों में निबंध लिखिए: (5 अंक)

(i) जल ही जीवन है
(ii) मेरे प्रिय लेखक
(iii) मेरी पसंदीदा पुस्तक

प्रश्न 10: निम्न में से किसी एक पर पत्र लिखिए (औपचारिक या अनौपचारिक): (5 अंक)

(i) विद्यालय के पुस्तकालय में नई पुस्तकें जोड़ने हेतु प्रधानाचार्य को पत्र।
(ii) अपने मित्र को जन्मदिन की बधाई देते हुए पत्र।

प्रश्न 11: एक संवाद या अनुच्छेद लिखिए (80–100 शब्दों में): (5 अंक)

(i) मोबाइल फोन का बढ़ता उपयोग — दो मित्रों के बीच संवाद
(ii) विज्ञान और हमारा जीवन — अनुच्छेद

Answer Key / Marking Scheme

Section A (Literature)

  • Short answer (2 marks each):
    • Content: 1 mark
    • Language/presentation: 1 mark
  • Long answer (2 marks):
    • Relevance and completeness: 1.5 mark
    • Creativity and clarity: 0.5 mark

Section B (Grammar)

  • Fill-in-the-blanks (1 mark each):
    Expected answers:
    (क) विजय
    (ख) तेज़
    (ग) में
    (घ) साथ
    (ङ) कर्तव्य
  • Sentence transformation (1 mark each)
  • MCQs (1 mark each):
    Correct options:
    (क) ii
    (ख) ii
    (ग) i
    (घ) ii
  • Idioms:
    • नाक में दम करना – बहुत परेशान करना
    • मुँह की खाना – हार मानना
    • आँखें दिखाना – गुस्से से देखना

Each:

  • Meaning: 0.5
  • Sentence: 0.5

Section C (Writing)

  • Essay (5 marks):
    • Content: 3
    • Language and grammar: 1
    • Structure: 1
  • Letter (5 marks):
    • Format: 1
    • Content: 3
    • Language: 1
  • Dialogue/Paragraph (5 marks):
    • Relevance: 2.5
    • Coherence & fluency: 2
    • Grammar: 0.5

Social Science

📝 CBSE Class 8 – Social Science Sample Paper (2024–25)

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  • All questions are compulsory.
  • Answer the questions as per instructions.
  • Internal choice is provided where applicable.
  • Marks are indicated against each question.
  • Map question is to be attempted on the map attached.

🔹 SECTION A – Objective Type Questions (1 × 10 = 10 marks)

Q1. Choose the correct option (1 × 5 = 5 marks)

  1. The revolt of 1857 began from which of the following places?
    (a) Delhi
    (b) Kanpur
    (c) Meerut
    (d) Lucknow
  2. The Indian Constitution came into effect on:
    (a) 15 August 1947
    (b) 26 November 1949
    (c) 26 January 1950
    (d) 2 October 1950
  3. Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource?
    (a) Coal
    (b) Petroleum
    (c) Water
    (d) Natural gas
  4. What is the full form of MGNREGA?
    (a) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Education Guarantee Act
    (b) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
    (c) Mahatma Gandhi National Reform and Employment Guarantee Act
    (d) None of the above
  5. The upper house of the Indian Parliament is called:
    (a) Lok Sabha
    (b) Rajya Sabha
    (c) Vidhan Sabha
    (d) Lok Parishad

Q2. Fill in the blanks (1 × 5 = 5 marks)
6. _____________ are the basic support systems for a country, such as roads, railways, schools, and hospitals.
7. The Ryotwari system was introduced by _____________.
8. The key feature of secularism is separation of ____________ from the State.
9. The Chipko Movement was related to conservation of ____________.
10. ____________ resources are found in a fixed quantity in nature.

🔹 SECTION B – Very Short Answer Questions (2 × 6 = 12 marks)

Answer the following in 30–40 words each.

Q3. Why is the Indian Constitution considered a living document?
Q4. Define “industries.” Mention two types of industries.
Q5. Mention any two features of the Permanent Settlement.
Q6. What is the role of the judiciary in a democratic country?
Q7. What are public facilities? Give two examples.
Q8. Define natural vegetation. How is it classified?

🔹 SECTION C – Short Answer Questions (3 × 8 = 24 marks)

Answer the following in 60–80 words each.

Q9. How did the British expand their power from trade to territory in India?
Q10. Explain how women and social reformers worked to improve the status of women in the 19th century.
Q11. Write a short note on secularism in India. How does the Constitution safeguard secularism?
Q12. Why is agriculture important in India? Mention three major types of farming practices.
Q13. Explain any three functions of the Parliament in India.
Q14. What are the causes and effects of land degradation in India?
Q15. What is meant by confronting marginalisation? Give examples.
Q16. Why is the law important in ensuring social justice? Give examples from any two sectors.

🔹 SECTION D – Long Answer Questions (5 × 4 = 20 marks)

Answer the following in 100–120 words each.

Q17. (History) Describe the major events and significance of the Revolt of 1857.
OR
Explain the role of Mahatma Gandhi in the Indian National Movement.

Q18. (Geography) Explain the classification of natural resources. Provide examples of each type.
OR
Explain the importance of water, soil, and forest conservation with examples.

Q19. (Civics) How does the judiciary ensure justice in India? Explain with the help of examples.
OR
Discuss the importance of fundamental rights provided by the Constitution.

Q20. (Geography) Describe the major features of Indian agriculture and the problems faced by farmers.
OR
What is industrial pollution? Explain its types and suggest any two solutions.

🔹 SECTION E – Map Work (1 × 4 = 4 marks)

Q21. On the outline map of India, locate and label the following:
(a) Place from where the 1857 Revolt started
(b) Any one major soil type region in India
(c) A major cotton-producing state
(d) A major river valley agricultural region

(Attach map at the end for students to attempt)

✅ Answer Key / Marking Scheme

Section A (1 mark each)

  1. (c) Meerut
  2. (c) 26 January 1950
  3. (c) Water
  4. (b) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
  5. (b) Rajya Sabha
  6. Infrastructure
  7. Thomas Munro
  8. Religion
  9. Forests
  10. Non-renewable

Section B (2 marks each)

  • Clear, concise response: 2 marks
  • One valid point: 1 mark

Section C (3 marks each)

  • 3 key points = 3 marks
  • 2 points + 1 elaboration = 3 marks
  • Use of examples or contextual clarity adds value

Section D (5 marks each)

  • 4–5 accurate points = 4 marks
  • Coherence, structure = 1 mark

Section E (1 mark each)

  • Correct placement + labeling of all 4 = 4 marks
  • Partially correct = 0.5 mark each

Science

🧪 CBSE Class 8 Science – Sample Question Paper (2024–25)

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  • All questions are compulsory.
  • The paper is divided into four sections: A, B, C, and D.
  • Marks for each question are indicated against it.
  • Use diagrams wherever necessary.

🔹 SECTION A – Objective Type Questions (1 × 10 = 10 marks)

Q1. Choose the correct option: (1 × 5 = 5 marks)

  1. Which one of the following is a renewable source of energy?
    (a) Coal
    (b) Petroleum
    (c) Natural Gas
    (d) Biomass
  2. Which microorganism is used in the production of alcohol?
    (a) Bacteria
    (b) Virus
    (c) Algae
    (d) Yeast
  3. The loudness of sound depends on:
    (a) Amplitude
    (b) Frequency
    (c) Wavelength
    (d) Time period
  4. Which one is an example of a non-luminous object?
    (a) Candle flame
    (b) Torch
    (c) Moon
    (d) Electric bulb
  5. What is the SI unit of pressure?
    (a) Newton
    (b) Pascal
    (c) Joule
    (d) Watt

Q2. Fill in the blanks: (1 × 5 = 5 marks)

  1. _________ is the process of transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma.
  2. Reaching the age of _________ is marked by physical and hormonal changes in the body.
  3. The ____________ end of a freely suspended bar magnet points towards the north.
  4. Petroleum is also known as ___________.
  5. The frictional force exerted by fluids is called _________.

🔹 SECTION B – Very Short Answer Questions (2 × 6 = 12 marks)

(Answer each in 30–40 words)

Q3. What is crop rotation? Why is it beneficial?
Q4. Define adolescence. Mention any two changes observed during this stage.
Q5. Differentiate between biodegradable and non-biodegradable materials with one example each.
Q6. What is electric conductivity? Name one good and one poor conductor.
Q7. Write two ways to conserve forests and wildlife.
Q8. What is the function of the placenta during reproduction in mammals?

🔹 SECTION C – Short Answer Questions (3 × 8 = 24 marks)

(Answer each in 60–80 words)

Q9. Describe three important agricultural practices followed in crop production.
Q10. What are the advantages and disadvantages of friction?
Q11. Explain with a diagram how pressure in liquids increases with depth.
Q12. How does the human voice box (larynx) produce sound?
Q13. Describe the types of reproduction in animals with suitable examples.
Q14. What are the harmful effects of acid rain caused by air pollution?
Q15. Explain how the phenomenon of reflection of light is used in daily life.
Q16. Distinguish between conductors and insulators with two examples of each.

🔹 SECTION D – Long Answer Questions (5 × 4 = 20 marks)

(Answer each in 100–120 words)

Q17. Explain the process of nitrogen fixation and its importance for agriculture.
OR
Describe any three methods to prevent depletion of fossil fuels.

Q18. What safety measures should be taken during lightning and thunder? Explain how lightning is caused.
OR
Define earthquake. How can you prepare your home to minimize earthquake damage?

Q19. Explain the structure and function of the human female reproductive system. Draw a well-labeled diagram.
OR
What are the causes of water and air pollution? Suggest three preventive measures for each.

Q20. Describe the working of a simple electric circuit with a battery, bulb, and switch. Draw a circuit diagram and explain the role of each component.
OR
What is the principle of shadow formation? Describe an activity to demonstrate the formation of shadows.

🔹 SECTION E – Diagram and Skill-Based Question (2 × 2 = 4 marks)

Q21. Label the parts A and B in the given diagram of the human ear. Write their functions.
Q22. Observe the diagram of a plant and identify the male and female reproductive parts. Mention their roles.

✅ Answer Key / Marking Scheme

Section A (1 mark each)

  1. (d) Biomass
  2. (d) Yeast
  3. (a) Amplitude
  4. (c) Moon
  5. (b) Pascal
  6. Pollination
  7. Adolescence
  8. North
  9. Black Gold
  10. Drag

Section B (2 marks each)

  • Each question must be brief and to the point.
  • Correct explanation = 2 marks

Section C (3 marks each)

  • Three correct points or explanation with clarity = 3 marks
  • Partial answer = 1.5 or 2 marks

Section D (5 marks each)

  • 4–5 key points with correct explanation = 5 marks
  • Diagram (if applicable) = 1 mark
  • Coherence & language = 1 mark

Section E (2 marks each)

  • Correct labeling = 1 mark
  • Correct function/identification = 1 mark

✏️ Note to Teachers:

You may modify the values, labeling, and real-life application questions based on students’ levels. Use diagrams, flowcharts, and activities in assessment to encourage visual learning.

Categories
AI Prompts for Schools

Class 9

Question Paper

Subject: Mathematics
Class: IX (2024–25)
Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  • All questions are compulsory.
  • The question paper is divided into four sections A, B, C and D.
  • Use of a calculator is not permitted.
  • Draw neat figures wherever required.

🟦 Section A – (1 mark each)

(6 Questions × 1 mark = 6 marks)
Attempt all questions.

  1. Evaluate: 49+121\sqrt{49} + \sqrt{121}49​+121​.
  2. Find the degree of the polynomial: 5×3−2×2+7x−45x^3 – 2x^2 + 7x – 45×3−2×2+7x−4.
  3. What is the x-coordinate of the point where the graph of the linear equation x+2y=6x + 2y = 6x+2y=6 intersects the x-axis?
  4. Write the coordinates of the origin.
  5. In a triangle, if one angle is 90°, and the other two angles are equal, find the value of each equal angle.
  6. Find the value of aaa, if (x−3)(x-3)(x−3) is a factor of the polynomial x2+ax−3x^2 + ax – 3×2+ax−3.

🟦 Section B – (2 marks each)

(6 Questions × 2 marks = 12 marks)
Attempt all questions.

  1. Express 0.36‾0.\overline{36}0.36 as a rational number in the form pq\frac{p}{q}qp​.
  2. Factorise the polynomial: x2−7x+10x^2 – 7x + 10×2−7x+10.
  3. Find the value of ‘k’ if the point (2, 3) lies on the line 2x+ky=122x + ky = 122x+ky=12.
  4. Plot the points A(1, 2), B(1, -2), C(-1, -2), and D(-1, 2) on the Cartesian plane and name the figure formed.
  5. In triangle ABC, D is the midpoint of BC and E is the midpoint of AC. If AD and BE intersect at point O, show that AO = 2OD.
  6. The area of a rhombus is 108 cm². If one diagonal is 12 cm, find the other diagonal.

🟦 Section C – (3 marks each)

(8 Questions × 3 marks = 24 marks)
Attempt all questions.

  1. Simplify and find the value:

(23+34)2−(12−13)2\left(\frac{2}{3} + \frac{3}{4}\right)^2 – \left(\frac{1}{2} – \frac{1}{3}\right)^2(32​+43​)2−(21​−31​)2

  1. Find the remainder when 2×3−3×2+4x+52x^3 – 3x^2 + 4x + 52×3−3×2+4x+5 is divided by x−1x – 1x−1.
  2. Solve the equation:

3x−42=2x+13\frac{3x – 4}{2} = \frac{2x + 1}{3}23x−4​=32x+1​

  1. Find the coordinates of the point which lies on the y-axis and is equidistant from the points (3, 2) and (-1, 2).
  2. In ΔABC, if angle A = 70° and angle B = 60°, find angle C. Show that the exterior angle is equal to the sum of two interior opposite angles.
  3. Find the surface area of a sphere of radius 7 cm.
  4. A car travels 80 km in 2 hours and 120 km in 3 hours. Find the average speed of the car.
  5. Construct a triangle ABC with BC = 6 cm, ∠B = 60°, and AB = 5 cm. Also, draw its perpendicular bisector.

🟦 Section D – (4 marks each)

(7 Questions × 4 marks = 28 marks)
Attempt all questions.

  1. Prove that 2\sqrt{2}2​ is an irrational number.
  2. Divide x3−6×2+11x−6x^3 – 6x^2 + 11x – 6×3−6×2+11x−6 by x−1x – 1x−1.
  3. Plot the points A(0, 0), B(4, 0), C(4, 3), and D(0, 3) and prove that the quadrilateral ABCD is a rectangle.
  4. Two angles of a triangle are in the ratio 4:5, and the third angle is 40°. Find all the angles.
  5. A cone has a radius of 3.5 cm and height of 12 cm. Find its curved surface area and total surface area.
  6. From a cylinder of height 14 cm and radius 3 cm, a cone of the same height and base is carved out. Find the volume of the remaining solid.
  7. The marks scored by 40 students in a test are given below. Draw a histogram to represent the data:
Marks0–1010–2020–3030–4040–50
No. of Students3512155

🔍 Answer Key / Marking Scheme:

Section A (1 mark each)

  1. 7+11=187 + 11 = 187+11=18
  2. 3
  3. Put y=0y = 0y=0 ⇒ x=6x = 6x=6
  4. (0, 0)
  5. (180°−90°)/2=45°(180° – 90°)/2 = 45°(180°−90°)/2=45°
  6. Using factor theorem: a=−6a = -6a=−6

Section B (2 marks each)

  1. Let x=0.36‾x = 0.\overline{36}x=0.36 ⇒ 100x−x=36.36−0.36=36100x – x = 36.36 – 0.36 = 36100x−x=36.36−0.36=36 ⇒ x=3699=411x = \frac{36}{99} = \frac{4}{11}x=9936​=114​
  2. Factors: (x – 2)(x – 5)
  3. Substitute: 2(2)+3k=122(2) + 3k = 122(2)+3k=12 ⇒ 4+3k=124 + 3k = 124+3k=12 ⇒ k=83k = \frac{8}{3}k=38​
  4. The figure formed is a square
  5. Use mid-point theorem and triangle geometry
  6. Area = 12×d1×d2\frac{1}{2} \times d_1 \times d_221​×d1​×d2​ ⇒ 12×12×d=108\frac{1}{2} \times 12 \times d = 10821​×12×d=108 ⇒ d=18d = 18d=18 cm

Section C (3 marks each)

  1. (8+912)2−(1−26)2=(1712)2−(−16)2=289144−136=289−4144=285144=9548\left(\frac{8 + 9}{12}\right)^2 – \left(\frac{1 – 2}{6}\right)^2 = \left(\frac{17}{12}\right)^2 – \left(\frac{-1}{6}\right)^2 = \frac{289}{144} – \frac{1}{36} = \frac{289 – 4}{144} = \frac{285}{144} = \frac{95}{48}(128+9​)2−(61−2​)2=(1217​)2−(6−1​)2=144289​−361​=144289−4​=144285​=4895​
  2. Remainder using synthetic division = 8
  3. Solve: 9x−12=4x+29x – 12 = 4x + 29x−12=4x+2 ⇒ x=145x = \frac{14}{5}x=514​
  4. Find point on y-axis (x = 0) and equate distances ⇒ coordinates: (0, 2)
  5. Angle C = 50°; exterior angle = 70° + 60° = 130°
  6. Surface Area = 4πr2=4×227×49=616 cm24\pi r^2 = 4 \times \frac{22}{7} \times 49 = 616 \, \text{cm}^24πr2=4×722​×49=616cm2
  7. Avg speed = 80+1202+3=2005=40 km/h\frac{80 + 120}{2 + 3} = \frac{200}{5} = 40 \, \text{km/h}2+380+120​=5200​=40km/h
  8. Construction as per geometric rules. Perpendicular bisector shown with compass.

Section D (4 marks each)

  1. Proof by contradiction: assume rational form, show contradiction via Euclid’s lemma
  2. Long division gives quotient: x2−5x+6x^2 – 5x + 6×2−5x+6, remainder 0
  3. Show opposite sides equal and adjacent angles 90° ⇒ rectangle
  4. Let angles = 4x, 5x, 40° ⇒ total = 180 ⇒ x = 10 ⇒ angles: 40°, 50°, 90°
  5. CSA = πrl=227×3.5×122+3.52\pi rl = \frac{22}{7} \times 3.5 \times \sqrt{12^2 + 3.5^2}πrl=722​×3.5×122+3.52​, TSA = CSA + base area
  6. Volume = cylinder – cone ⇒ πr2h−13πr2h=23πr2h\pi r^2 h – \frac{1}{3}\pi r^2 h = \frac{2}{3} \pi r^2 hπr2h−31​πr2h=32​πr2h
  7. Histogram showing frequency bars with correct width and height

Science Question Paper

Academic Year: 2024–25
Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

🔹 General Instructions:

  • All questions are compulsory.
  • The question paper comprises five sections A, B, C, D and E. All sections are compulsory.
  • Internal choice is provided in some questions.
  • Use of calculator is not allowed.

🟧 Section A – (Objective Type Questions)

(1 mark each × 7 questions = 7 marks)

Q1. Which of the following is not a physical change?
a) Melting of ice
b) Boiling of water
c) Rusting of iron
d) Dissolving salt in water

Q2. The unit of force is:
a) Joule
b) Newton
c) Pascal
d) Watt

Q3. What is the formula for calculating speed?

Q4. Name one organism each from the Monera and Protista kingdoms.

Q5. Define valency.

Q6. State the law of conservation of mass.

Q7. In which medium does sound travel fastest: solid, liquid, or gas?

🟧 Section B – (Very Short Answer Questions)

(2 marks each × 6 questions = 12 marks)

Q8. Define and give an example each for homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures.

Q9. Calculate the number of moles in 36 grams of water (H₂O).

Q10. What is inertia? Name the type of inertia involved when a person falls forward when a moving bus suddenly stops.

Q11. How does sound travel in air? Why can’t it travel through vacuum?

Q12. Draw a neat, labeled diagram of a plant cell.

Q13. Give two differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

🟧 Section C – (Short Answer Questions)

(3 marks each × 8 questions = 24 marks)

Q14. List any three characteristics of particles of matter.

Q15. Define acceleration. A car accelerates from 5 m/s to 20 m/s in 3 s. Calculate the acceleration.

Q16. Write the chemical formulae of the following compounds:
a) Calcium chloride
b) Ammonium sulphate
c) Magnesium oxide

Q17. Explain any three types of plant tissues with one function of each.

Q18. Classify the following as metals or non-metals and justify your answer:
Carbon, Sodium, Sulphur, Copper

Q19. State Newton’s Third Law of Motion. Give two examples from daily life.

Q20. Write any three differences between distance and displacement with examples.

Q21. Why does the sound become faint as we move away from the source? What happens to the amplitude and energy of the wave?

🟧 Section D – (Long Answer Questions)

(5 marks each × 3 questions = 15 marks)

Q22.
a) Define the term atom.
b) State the postulates of Dalton’s atomic theory. (Any 3)
c) Calculate the number of atoms in 18 grams of water (H₂O). (H = 1, O = 16)
(Avogadro’s Number = 6.022×10236.022 \times 10^{23}6.022×1023)

Q23.
a) Explain the classification of living organisms by Whittaker.
b) Write one distinguishing feature of each of the following kingdoms: Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia.
c) How does classification help in studying biology?

Q24.
a) Define work and give its SI unit.
b) A force of 10 N is applied on an object. The object moves 5 m in the direction of force. Calculate the work done.
c) State any two conditions for work to be said to be done.
d) Differentiate between positive and negative work with one example each.

🟧 Section E – (Case-based / Source-based Questions)

(4 marks each × 3 questions = 12 marks)

Q25. Read the passage and answer the questions below:
Rahul observed that when he opened a perfume bottle in one corner of the room, the fragrance soon spread throughout the room.

a) What property of matter does this observation show?
b) Name the phenomenon involved.
c) Why does the fragrance take some time to reach all corners?
d) What would happen if the temperature of the room were increased?

Q26. Read the data table and answer the following questions.

ObjectMass (kg)Velocity (m/s)
A23
B16
C32

a) Calculate the momentum of each object.
b) Which object has the highest momentum?
c) Define momentum and give its SI unit.
d) State the relation between force and momentum.

Q27. Read the following passage and answer the questions below:
A sound wave travels through different media at different speeds. In steel, sound travels faster than in water or air. This property is useful in detecting cracks in metal structures.

a) Arrange air, water, and steel in increasing order of sound speed.
b) Why does sound travel faster in solids than in gases?
c) Which property of sound is used in SONAR?
d) How does the amplitude of a sound wave affect its loudness?

✅ Answer Key / Marking Scheme

Section A (1 mark each)

  1. c) Rusting of iron
  2. b) Newton
  3. Speed = Distance / Time
  4. Monera – E. coli, Protista – Amoeba
  5. Valency is the combining capacity of an element.
  6. Mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.
  7. Solid

Section B (2 marks each)

  1. Homogeneous – salt in water; Heterogeneous – sand in water
  2. Moles = 36 ÷ 18 = 2 mol
  3. Resistance to change in motion; Inertia of motion
  4. Via longitudinal waves; Vacuum has no particles to carry sound
  5. Labeled diagram with nucleus, cytoplasm, cell wall, vacuole
  6. Prokaryotes: no nucleus; Eukaryotes: well-defined nucleus

Section C (3 marks each)

  1. Small size, constant motion, space between them
  2. a=20−53=5 m/s2a = \frac{20 – 5}{3} = 5 \, m/s^2a=320−5​=5m/s2
  3. a) CaCl₂, b) (NH₄)₂SO₄, c) MgO
  4. Parenchyma – storage, Collenchyma – support, Xylem – water transport
  5. Carbon – non-metal, Sodium – metal, Sulphur – non-metal, Copper – metal (based on conductivity, luster, malleability)
  6. Every action has equal and opposite reaction – jumping, gun recoil
  7. Distance – scalar, Displacement – vector; examples
  8. Energy and amplitude reduce with distance – hence faint sound

Section D (5 marks each)

a) Smallest unit of matter
b) Postulates: indivisibility, atoms of same element are alike, fixed ratio in compounds
c) Moles = 1; molecules = 6.022×10236.022 \times 10^{23}6.022×1023; atoms = 3×6.022×10233 \times 6.022 \times 10^{23}3×6.022×1023

a) 5-kingdom system: Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia
b) Features of each kingdom
c) Helps organize diversity, easier to study relationships

a) Work = Force × Distance
b) W = 10 × 5 = 50 J
c) Force must be applied, displacement should occur
d) Positive work – same direction (lifting object); Negative – opposite (friction)

Section E (4 marks each)

a) Particles of matter have space
b) Diffusion
c) Due to random motion of particles
d) Increases rate of diffusion

a) A: 6, B: 6, C: 6 kg·m/s
b) All equal
c) Product of mass and velocity; SI unit: kg·m/s
d) Force = rate of change of momentum

a) Air < Water < Steel
b) Particles are closely packed in solids
c) Reflection of sound
d) Greater amplitude = louder sound

Social Science Question Paper

Academic Year: 2024–25
Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

🟦 General Instructions:

  1. The question paper is divided into four sections – A, B, C, and D.
  2. All questions are compulsory.
  3. Marks are indicated against each question.
  4. Questions 1 to 4 are objective type questions of 1 mark each.
  5. Questions 5 to 9 are very short answer questions of 2 marks each.
  6. Questions 10 to 18 are short answer questions of 3 marks each.
  7. Questions 19 to 23 are long answer questions of 5 marks each.
  8. Question 24 is a map-based question from Geography and History (5 marks).
  9. Internal choices are given in selected questions.

🔹 SECTION A: Objective Type Questions (1×4 = 4 marks)

Q1. Who authored the famous pamphlet “What is the Third Estate?”?
a) Robespierre
b) Rousseau
c) Abbé Sieyès
d) Mirabeau

Q2. Which of the following is a renewable resource?
a) Coal
b) Petroleum
c) Solar energy
d) Natural gas

Q3. Define ‘Constitution’ in one sentence.

Q4. Which sector is known as the primary sector?

🔹 SECTION B: Very Short Answer Questions (2×5 = 10 marks)

Q5. What is meant by the term ‘subsistence farming’?
Q6. Mention any two features of a democratic government.
Q7. Write two major causes of the French Revolution.
Q8. Explain the term ‘GDP’.
Q9. Define the term ‘weathering’. Mention one type.

🔹 SECTION C: Short Answer Questions (3×9 = 27 marks)

Q10. How did the ideas of philosophers influence the French Revolution?
Q11. Distinguish between ‘Agro-based industries’ and ‘Mineral-based industries’ with examples.
Q12. Explain any three measures to conserve natural resources.
Q13. What are the main features of the Indian Constitution? (Any three)
Q14. “The Right to Equality is one of the most important Fundamental Rights.” Explain.
Q15. Describe any three differences between the formal and informal sectors of the economy.
Q16. What are the different factors of production? Explain each with one example.
Q17. What is the role of youth in strengthening democracy? Mention any three points.
Q18. How can soil be conserved? Mention any three methods.

🔹 SECTION D: Long Answer Questions (5×5 = 25 marks)

Q19. Explain the political, economic, and social causes of the French Revolution.
OR
Explain the impact of the Russian Revolution on Russian society and the world.

Q20. Define the term ‘climate’. Explain the major factors affecting the climate of India.

Q21. Discuss the significance of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution. Mention any four key words and their meanings.

Q22. How are people exploited in the unorganised sector in India? Suggest any three measures to protect them.

Q23. Explain how poverty is measured in India. Also, list two main causes of poverty in India.

🔹 SECTION E: Map-Based Question (5 marks)

Q24.
A. On the outline political map of India:
(Geography – 3 marks)
i) Mark and label Western Ghats
ii) Mark and label River Ganga
iii) Locate and label Thar Desert

B. On the same map (History – 2 marks):
i) Mark and label Bastille
ii) Locate and label Petrograd

(Note: Students are to attach the map inside the answer sheet.)

✅ Answer Key / Marking Scheme

SECTION A (1 mark each)

  1. c) Abbé Sieyès
  2. c) Solar energy
  3. A constitution is a set of fundamental principles according to which a state is governed.
  4. Agriculture sector

SECTION B (2 marks each)

  1. Farming where crops are grown for self-consumption, not sale.
  2. (i) Free and fair elections, (ii) Rule of law
  3. Burden of taxes, unequal social structure
  4. GDP – Gross Domestic Product: It is the total value of goods and services produced in a country in one year.
  5. Weathering is the breaking down of rocks on the Earth’s surface. One type: Physical weathering

SECTION C (3 marks each)

  1. Philosophers like Rousseau, Montesquieu, and Voltaire questioned monarchy and inspired revolutionary ideas.
  2. Agro-based: Dependent on agriculture (e.g., cotton textile), Mineral-based: Use minerals as raw material (e.g., iron and steel)
  3. Afforestation, sustainable use of resources, rainwater harvesting
  4. Features: Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Republic (any three with explanation)
  5. It ensures no discrimination, equal opportunity in public jobs, and equal protection of the law.
  6. Formal: Registered, benefits, job security; Informal: Unregistered, low wages, no security
  7. Land – soil, water; Labour – workers; Capital – tools, machines; Entrepreneur – businessperson
  8. Participate in voting, raise awareness, use social media for positive change
  9. Terracing, contour ploughing, afforestation

SECTION D (5 marks each)

  • Political: Absolute monarchy, no representation
  • Economic: Heavy taxes, food scarcity
  • Social: Inequality, privileges to the clergy and nobility
  • Enlightenment ideas
  • Immediate trigger: Fall of Bastille
    (OR Russian Revolution points if that choice is taken)

Climate: Long-term pattern of weather
Factors: Latitude, Altitude, Distance from sea, Relief features, Jet streams, Monsoon winds

Preamble: Introduction to Constitution
Key words:

  • Sovereign – free to make internal/external decisions
  • Socialist – reducing inequality
  • Secular – no official religion
  • Democratic – elected government
  • Republic – elected head of state

Exploitation: No fixed wages, long hours, unsafe working conditions
Protection: Minimum wage law, Social security schemes, Legal awareness

Measurement: Poverty line (based on calorie intake/income level)
Causes: Unemployment, Unequal distribution of resources

SECTION E: Map Skills (5 marks)

Geography (3 marks)
i) Western Ghats – western coast of India
ii) River Ganga – originates from Gangotri
iii) Thar Desert – in western Rajasthan

History (2 marks)
i) Bastille – France (Paris)
ii) Petrograd – Russia (St. Petersburg)

English Language and Literature

Sample Question Paper (2024–25)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

📘 General Instructions:

  • This question paper is divided into four sections – A, B, C, and D.
  • All questions are compulsory.
  • Do not exceed the word limit wherever specified.
  • Marks are indicated against each question.

SECTION A – READING (20 Marks)

Q1. Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:
(10 marks)

Passage 1:
There is no denying the fact that habits form our character and determine our future. Good habits lead to good character and bad habits spoil it. Habits are easy to acquire but difficult to give up. They have a great hold on a person. A person may not be conscious that he is forming habits. But gradually they become a part of his personality. Hence, it is important to cultivate good habits in the early stages of life.

1.1 Why are habits important in shaping a person’s character? (2)
1.2 How are habits difficult to manage? (2)
1.3 What warning does the passage give regarding habits? (2)
1.4 Find a word from the passage which means ‘develop’ or ‘nurture’. (1)
1.5 What advice is given in the passage about habits? (3)

Q2. Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:
(10 marks)

Passage 2 (Factual):
The cheetah is the world’s fastest land animal. It can accelerate from 0 to 100 km/h in just a few seconds. Unlike other big cats, the cheetah cannot roar but purrs like a domestic cat. The cheetah’s slender body, long legs, and special paw pads make it an efficient hunter. However, due to habitat loss and poaching, cheetahs are now listed as vulnerable.

2.1 What makes the cheetah a unique big cat? (2)
2.2 What factors contribute to the cheetah’s fast running ability? (2)
2.3 How does habitat loss threaten the cheetah’s survival? (2)
2.4 Find the synonym of ‘in danger’ from the passage. (1)
2.5 Give two reasons why cheetahs are under threat. (3)

SECTION B – WRITING AND GRAMMAR (20 Marks)

Q3. Writing (10 marks)
(a) Descriptive Paragraph (Person) – 100–120 words (5 marks)
Topic: Describe a teacher who has inspired you.

(b) Diary Entry – 100–120 words (5 marks)
Topic: You recently learned to ride a bicycle. Write a diary entry expressing your feelings and experience.

Q4. Grammar (10 marks)
Fill in the blanks choosing the most appropriate options from the ones given. Attempt any five. (5×1=5 marks)

4.1 He ______ (go/goes/going/went) to school every day.
4.2 The book ______ (is/are/were/has) on the table.
4.3 I ______ (have/has/having/had) finished my homework.
4.4 If I ______ (am/were/was/be) you, I would apologize.
4.5 She ______ (don’t/doesn’t/isn’t/didn’t) like horror movies.
4.6 The train ______ (arrive/arrives/arrived/arriving) at 6 PM.

Q5. Rearrange the words and phrases to form meaningful sentences. Attempt any five. (5×1=5 marks)

5.1 always / punctual / is / she
5.2 the / sky / stars / the / fill / night / with
5.3 exams / their / for / students / preparing / are
5.4 raining / it / heavily / was / yesterday
5.5 is / honesty / policy / best / the
5.6 road / the / was / across / running / dog / the

SECTION C – LITERATURE (Beehive & Moments) (30 Marks)

Q6. Reference to Context – Prose (4 marks)
Read the extract and answer the questions:

“But I laugh when I think how I once believed the humming of bees to be the sound of a song!”

6.1 Who is the speaker of this line?
6.2 What does the speaker realise here?
6.3 Name the chapter and the author.
6.4 What theme is reflected in this statement?

Q7. Reference to Context – Poem (4 marks)
Read the stanza and answer the questions:

“The way a crow
Shook down on me
The dust of snow
From a hemlock tree”

7.1 Name the poem and the poet.
7.2 What is the significance of the hemlock tree and the crow?
7.3 How did the crow’s action affect the poet?
7.4 What poetic device is used in the second line?

Q8. Short Answer Questions (Any three – 3×3 = 9 marks)
Answer any three questions in 30–40 words each:

8.1 What do you learn about the character of Margie in The Fun They Had?
8.2 How did the narrator in The Sound of Music – Part 1 overcome her disability?
8.3 Why does the author call Coorg “a piece of heaven”?
8.4 What lesson do we learn from the story The Lost Child?

Q9. Short Answer Questions (Any two – 2×3 = 6 marks)
(Moments) Answer any two in 30–40 words each:

9.1 Why did the postmaster send money to Lencho?
9.2 How did the narrator discover the truth about the man in The Adventures of Toto?
9.3 Describe how the family in Iswaran the Storyteller managed the tantrums of Mahendra.

Q10. Long Answer Question – (Beehive) – 100–120 words (6 marks)
Describe how the chapter My Childhood reflects Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam’s values and early influences that shaped his life.

Q11. Long Answer Question – (Moments) – 100–120 words (6 marks)
Describe how the story The Beggar brings out the importance of compassion and self-respect.

✅ Answer Key / Marking Scheme

Section A – Reading (20 marks)

(Answers may vary slightly based on expression. Key points provided.)

Q1.
1.1 – Habits influence character and future.
1.2 – Easy to form, hard to break.
1.3 – Habits gradually become part of personality.
1.4 – Cultivate
1.5 – Cultivate good habits early in life.

Q2.
2.1 – Fastest land animal, cannot roar.
2.2 – Slender body, long legs, special paw pads.
2.3 – Less land to live, illegal hunting reduces their numbers.
2.4 – Vulnerable
2.5 – Habitat loss, poaching

Section B – Writing and Grammar (20 marks)

Q3.

  • Descriptive Paragraph: Content (2), Expression (2), Grammar (1)
  • Diary Entry: Format (1), Content (2), Expression (2)

Q4.
4.1 – goes
4.2 – is
4.3 – have
4.4 – were
4.5 – doesn’t
4.6 – arrives

Q5.
5.1 – She is always punctual.
5.2 – The stars fill the sky with night.
5.3 – Students are preparing for their exams.
5.4 – It was raining heavily yesterday.
5.5 – Honesty is the best policy.
5.6 – The dog was running across the road.

Section C – Literature (30 marks)

Q6.
6.1 – Evelyn Glennie
6.2 – That it was not a song but bees
6.3 – The Sound of Music, Deborah Cowley
6.4 – Misconceptions due to disability

Q7.
7.1 – Dust of Snow by Robert Frost
7.2 – They represent gloom, yet create a positive change
7.3 – It changed the mood of the poet
7.4 – Enjambment

Q8. (Any 3)
8.1 – Curious, dislikes mechanical school
8.2 – Evelyn practices hard, trusts her senses
8.3 – Natural beauty, peace and coffee plantations
8.4 – Parents’ love is unconditional; worldly things fade

Q9. (Any 2)
9.1 – To restore Lencho’s faith in God
9.2 – When the monkey tore things apart
9.3 – Mahendra ignored him; Iswaran calmed him

Q10. – Must mention Kalam’s secular upbringing, parents’ influence, discipline, curiosity, education.

Q11. – Emphasise how kindness helped Lushkoff become self-reliant and respectful.

Hindi (Course A)

Sample Question Paper (2024–25)
Maximum Marks: 80
Time Allowed: 3 Hours

खंड – क (अवबोधन/Reading) – 10 अंक

प्र.1. निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़िए और पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए:
(5 अंक)

“हर दिन हमारे पास 24 घंटे होते हैं। इस समय को कैसे बिताया जाए, यह हमारे भविष्य को तय करता है। जो विद्यार्थी समय का मूल्य समझते हैं, वे न केवल परीक्षा में सफल होते हैं बल्कि जीवन में भी आगे बढ़ते हैं। समय की महत्ता को समझना और उसका सदुपयोग करना सफलता की कुंजी है।”

(क) गद्यांश में किस बात को सफलता की कुंजी बताया गया है? (1)
(ख) परीक्षा में सफल होने के लिए विद्यार्थी को क्या करना चाहिए? (1)
(ग) गद्यांश के अनुसार समय का क्या महत्व है? (1)
(घ) ‘सदुपयोग’ शब्द का अर्थ लिखिए। (1)
(ङ) उपयुक्त शीर्षक सुझाइए। (1)

प्र.2. निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़िए और प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए:
(5 अंक)

“नन्हा सा यह दीपक देखो,
तम की छाया हर लेता है।
सच्चे मन से जो जलता है,
वह जीवन को उजियारा देता है।”

(क) दीपक किसे प्रतीक रूप में प्रस्तुत किया गया है? (1)
(ख) सच्चे मन से जलने का क्या अर्थ है? (1)
(ग) ‘तम की छाया’ का क्या अर्थ है? (1)
(घ) काव्यांश का मुख्य संदेश क्या है? (1)
(ङ) काव्यांश से कोई एक अलंकार पहचानिए। (1)

खंड – ख (व्याकरण/Grammar) – 16 अंक

प्र.3. रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए (कोई चार): (4×1=4 अंक)

(क) उसने _______ दूध पिया। (कुछ / कोई / हर / जितना)
(ख) बच्चों _______ शोर मचाया। (से / ने / को / की)
(ग) हमें प्रकृति _______ रक्षा करनी चाहिए। (का / की / के / से)
(घ) राम और श्याम _______ अच्छे मित्र हैं। (है / हैं / था / थे)
(ङ) वह स्कूल _______ गया। (जा / जाओ / जाता / गया)

प्र.4. शब्दों के उचित युग्म चुनकर अर्थ सहित लिखिए (कोई दो): (2×2=4 अंक)
(क) कुम्भ – कुंभ
(ख) साधन – साधन
(ग) वर्ष – वर्श
(घ) जीवन – जीवित

प्र.5. वाक्य अशुद्ध हैं। सही करके लिखिए (कोई चार): (4×1=4 अंक)
(क) मुझे भूख लग रही हैं।
(ख) वह खेलता है फुटबॉल।
(ग) राम दिल्ली को गया।
(घ) माता जी बाजार गई थी।
(ङ) हम सब स्कूल जाता है।

प्र.6. किस कारक में है? (कोई चार शब्दों का कारक लिखिए): (4×1=4 अंक)
(क) अध्यापक
(ख) छात्रों
(ग) पुस्तक से
(घ) राम के लिए
(ङ) खेलों

खंड – ग (लेखन/Writing) – 16 अंक

प्र.7. निम्नलिखित विषयों में से किसी एक पर 100-120 शब्दों में अनुच्छेद लिखिए: (5 अंक)

(क) मेरे प्रिय त्योहार पर अनुच्छेद
(ख) डिजिटल शिक्षा: लाभ और चुनौतियाँ
(ग) एक दिन बिना मोबाइल के

प्र.8. किसी दुर्घटना का प्रत्यक्षदर्शी बनकर डायरी लेख (100–120 शब्दों में) लिखिए:
विषय: आपने एक सड़क दुर्घटना देखी जिसमें एक बुज़ुर्ग व्यक्ति घायल हुआ। अपने भाव व्यक्त कीजिए।
(5 अंक)

प्र.9. प्राचार्य को पुस्तकालय में नई पुस्तकें मंगवाने हेतु आवेदन पत्र लिखिए।
(6 अंक)

खंड – घ (पाठ्यपुस्तक आधारित प्रश्न) – 38 अंक

(कक्षा 9 की पाठ्यपुस्तकों – क्षितिज, कृतिका, संचयन, स्पर्श से प्रश्न)

प्र.10. क्षितिज (गद्य) – निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए (कोई दो): (2×3=6 अंक)

(क) ‘मेरे संग की औरतें’ पाठ में औरतों की स्थिति कैसी चित्रित की गई है?
(ख) ‘साखियाँ’ में कबीर किस प्रकार जीवन की सच्चाइयों को उजागर करते हैं?
(ग) ‘हामिद’ की मासूमियत और परिपक्वता का परिचय कैसे मिलता है?

प्र.11. क्षितिज (पद्य) – कोई एक प्रश्न का उत्तर लिखिए: (1×4=4 अंक)

(क) ‘बड़े होकर क्या बनोगे’ कविता में कवि बच्चों से क्या अपेक्षा करता है?
(ख) ‘ग्राम श्री’ कविता में ग्राम जीवन की कौन-कौन सी विशेषताएँ दर्शाई गई हैं?

प्र.12. कृतिका से कोई दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए: (2×3=6 अंक)

(क) ‘इस जल प्रलय में’ पाठ का संदेश क्या है?
(ख) ‘माटीवाली’ की नायिका में कौन-सी विशेषताएँ हैं?
(ग) ‘रेखाचित्र’ पाठ का स्वरूप क्या है?

प्र.13. संचयन से कोई दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए: (2×3=6 अंक)

(क) ‘गिल्लू’ में लेखक का पशु प्रेम कैसे प्रकट होता है?
(ख) ‘स्मृति’ पाठ की मुख्य भाव-भूमि क्या है?
(ग) ‘काले मेघा पानी दे’ पाठ में वर्षा की प्रतीक्षा क्यों की जा रही है?

प्र.14. स्पर्श – किसी एक प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए: (1×4=4 अंक)

(क) ‘अकेलेपन का दर्द’ में किस प्रकार मानवीय भावनाओं का चित्रण है?
(ख) ‘सच्चे मित्र की पहचान’ पाठ में मित्रता के गुणों का वर्णन कैसे हुआ है?

प्र.15. निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक पाठ का भावार्थ या सारांश दीजिए: (1×6=6 अंक)
(क) कबीर के दोहे – भावार्थ
(ख) कविता ‘ग्राम श्री’ का सारांश

✅ उत्तर कुंजी / Marking Scheme

खंड – क (Reading)

प्र.1 & प्र.2 – हर उप-प्रश्न = 1 अंक
कुल = 10 अंक

खंड – ख (Grammar)

प्र.3 = 4 अंक (1×4)
प्र.4 = 4 अंक (2×2)
प्र.5 = 4 अंक (1×4)
प्र.6 = 4 अंक (1×4)

खंड – ग (Writing)

प्र.7 – विचार प्रस्तुति 2, भाषा 2, यथोचित निष्कर्ष 1
प्र.8 – भावनात्मक अभिव्यक्ति 2, भाषा 2, संगठन 1
प्र.9 – प्रारूप 1, विषयवस्तु 3, भाषा/शब्दावली 2

खंड – घ (Textbooks)

प्र.10 – 6 अंक (3×2)
प्र.11 – 4 अंक
प्र.12 – 6 अंक (3×2)
प्र.13 – 6 अंक (3×2)
प्र.14 – 4 अंक
प्र.15 – 6 अंक (विषय समझ 3, भाषा 2, निष्कर्ष 1)

Computer Applications

Maximum Marks: 50
Time Allowed: 2 Hours

General Instructions:

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. Marks are indicated against each question.
  3. Use of a calculator or any electronic device is not allowed.
  4. Attempt all parts of a question together.

Section A: Objective Type Questions (1 × 10 = 10 marks)

Q1. Choose the correct answer for each of the following: (1 × 5 = 5 marks)
(a) Which of the following is an example of an input device?
 (i) Monitor (ii) Printer (iii) Keyboard (iv) Speaker

(b) Which software is used for managing files and directories in a computer?
 (i) MS Word (ii) Operating System (iii) Paint (iv) Excel

(c) Which of the following represents binary number 1101 in decimal?
 (i) 13 (ii) 11 (iii) 14 (iv) 12

(d) What does URL stand for?
 (i) Uniform Resource Locator
 (ii) Universal Retrieval Link
 (iii) Unique Reference Label
 (iv) Uniform Resource Label

(e) Which tag is used to insert a line break in HTML?
 (i) <br> (ii) <break> (iii) <lb> (iv) <line>

Q2. Fill in the blanks with suitable words. (1 × 5 = 5 marks)
(a) ________ is a non-volatile memory.
(b) The full form of CPU is __________.
(c) The physical components of a computer system are called __________.
(d) HTML stands for ______________.
(e) ___________ is used to identify each computer on the Internet uniquely.

Section B: Short Answer Type Questions (3 × 6 = 18 marks)

Q3. What is the difference between system software and application software? Give two examples of each. (3 marks)

Q4. Explain the three main components of a computer system. (3 marks)

Q5. Define the following terms with one example each:
(a) Open-source software
(b) Operating system
(c) Search engine (3 marks)

Q6. Write any three functions of an operating system. (3 marks)

Q7. Write the HTML code to display the following on a web page:

  • Heading: “Welcome to My Page”
  • A horizontal line
  • A paragraph: “This is my first HTML web page.” (3 marks)

Q8. What is a search engine? List any two search engines and explain how they help in information retrieval. (3 marks)

Section C: Long Answer Type Questions (6 × 3 = 18 marks)

Q9. Differentiate between primary and secondary memory. Explain RAM, ROM, and Hard Disk with appropriate functions. (6 marks)

Q10. Write the HTML code to create a web page that displays:

  • A heading “Class 9 Computer Applications”
  • A table with two rows and three columns displaying any dummy student data (Name, Roll No, Marks)
  • A hyperlink to “https://cbse.gov.in” with anchor text “Visit CBSE Website”
    Ensure your code is properly structured with basic HTML tags. (6 marks)

Q11. Explain the role of ICT (Information and Communication Technology) in education and healthcare. Give three examples from each field. (6 marks)

Answer Key / Marking Scheme

Section A (10 Marks)

Q1. MCQs:
(a) (iii) Keyboard – 1 mark
(b) (ii) Operating System – 1 mark
(c) (i) 13 – 1 mark
(d) (i) Uniform Resource Locator – 1 mark
(e) (i) <br> – 1 mark

Q2. Fill in the Blanks:
(a) ROM – 1 mark
(b) Central Processing Unit – 1 mark
(c) Hardware – 1 mark
(d) HyperText Markup Language – 1 mark
(e) IP Address – 1 mark

Section B (18 Marks)

Q3. System vs Application Software

  • System Software: Helps run computer hardware and system (e.g., Windows, Linux)
  • Application Software: Performs specific user tasks (e.g., MS Word, Tally)
  • Any two correct examples – 1 mark
  • Differences – 2 marks

Q4. Components of Computer System

  • Hardware – physical parts
  • Software – instructions/programs
  • Users – people operating computers
    (Each part = 1 mark)

Q5. Definitions and Examples:
Each correct definition with an example = 1 mark × 3 = 3 marks

Q6. Functions of OS (any three):

  • Memory management
  • Process management
  • File management
  • Device management
  • User interface
    (Any 3 = 3 marks)

Q7. HTML Code Output:
Correct use of tags:
<h1>, <hr>, <p>
Well-structured HTML – 3 marks

Q8. Search Engines:

  • Definition – 1 mark
  • Two correct examples – 1 mark
  • Working in info retrieval – 1 mark

Section C (18 Marks)

Q9. Primary vs Secondary Memory:

  • Definitions of RAM, ROM, Hard Disk
  • Differences in storage, volatility, speed
    Each point well explained = 6 marks

Q10. HTML Code for Web Page:

  • Structure: <html>, <head>, <body> – 1 mark
  • Heading with <h1> – 1 mark
  • Table with <table>, <tr>, <td> – 2 marks
  • Hyperlink using <a href> – 1 mark
  • Overall code validity – 1 mark

Q11. ICT in Education and Healthcare:

  • ICT in education: online classes, smart boards, e-learning – 3 marks
  • ICT in healthcare: telemedicine, e-records, appointment systems – 3 marks
    (Each relevant example + explanation = 1 mark)