History
CBSE Class 12 History (Themes in Indian History), aligned with the 2025-26 syllabus. The questions cover Part I (Ancient), Part II (Medieval), and Part III (Modern) themes, with emphasis on agrarian systems, colonialism, and societal perceptions as per NCERT and CBSE guidelines 268.
Part I: Ancient India
1. Which Harappan site is known for a dockyard?
(a) Harappa
(b) Mohenjo-Daro
(c) Lothal
(d) Kalibangan
2. The term “janapada” refers to:
(a) Royal priests
(b) Early territorial states
(c) Trade guilds
(d) Sacrificial rituals
3. Which inscription describes Ashoka’s Dhamma?
(a) Allahabad Pillar Inscription
(b) Major Rock Edict XIII
(c) Hathigumpha Inscription
(d) Junagadh Rock Inscription
4. The Manusmriti primarily deals with:
(a) Trade regulations
(b) Social norms and caste duties
(c) Buddhist monastic rules
(d) Mauryan administration
5. Sanchi Stupa is associated with:
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Vaishnavism
(d) Shaivism
Part II: Medieval India
6. Ibn Battuta’s Rihla describes the reign of:
(a) Alauddin Khalji
(b) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
(c) Akbar
(d) Sher Shah Suri
7. The chauth tax collected by the Marathas was:
(a) Land revenue from fertile lands
(b) 25% of land revenue from non-Maratha territories
(c) Religious tax for temples
(d) Toll tax on trade routes
8. Which traveler described Vijayanagara’s markets as “prosperous”?
(a) Al-Biruni
(b) Abdur Razzaq
(c) Francois Bernier
(d) Thomas Roe
9. Nirguna Bhakti traditions emphasized:
(a) Idol worship
(b) Devotion to a formless divine
(c) Ritual sacrifices
(d) Pilgrimages
10. The zamindars in Mughal India were primarily responsible for:
(a) Craft production
(b) Revenue collection
(c) Military recruitment
(d) Religious patronage
Part III: Modern India
11. The Permanent Settlement of 1793 fixed revenue:
(a) Permanently with zamindars
(b) Based on annual crop yield
(c) Only on wastelands
(d) Exclusively for British planters
12. The “Deccan Riots” (1875) targeted:
(a) British factories
(b) Moneylenders and grain dealers
(c) Missionary schools
(d) Railway networks
13. Which newspaper was edited by Gandhi during Champaran Satyagraha?
(a) Young India
(b) Kesari
(c) Amrita Bazar Patrika
(d) Bombay Chronicle
14. The “Subsidiary Alliance” was introduced by:
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Wellesley
(c) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Robert Clive
15. Who advocated “separate electorates” in the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Rajendra Prasad
(d) Sardar Patel
Source-Based Questions
*Use the excerpt to answer Q16-17:*
“The king orders that forests be cleared for agriculture. Taxes must be collected from peasants even during famines.”
16. This policy reflects the revenue system under:
(a) Sher Shah Suri
(b) Alauddin Khalji
(c) Akbar
(d) Shivaji
17. The primary source for this policy is:
(a) Ain-i-Akbari
(b) Ziauddin Barani’s chronicles
(c) Abul Fazl’s Akbarnama
(d) Baburnama
Map-Based Questions
18. Which site is a major Buddhist center in Andhra Pradesh?
(a) Sanchi
(b) Amaravati
(c) Lumbini
(d) Bharhut
19. The Revolt of 1857 started from:
(a) Kolkata
(b) Meerut
(c) Lucknow
(d) Jhansi
Conceptual/Analytical Questions
20. Jins-i-kamil in Mughal agrarian terms referred to:
(a) Barren land
(b) Cash crops
(c) Pasture land
(d) Forest produce
21. The Mahalwari system was implemented in:
(a) Bengal
(b) Punjab and North-West Provinces
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Gujarat
22. Bernier’s criticism of Mughal India focused on:
(a) Caste discrimination
(b) Lack of private property rights
(c) Religious intolerance
(d) Urban decay
Answer Key
| Q No. | Answer | Q No. | Answer |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | C | 14 | B |
| 2 | B | 15 | B |
| 3 | B | 16 | B |
| 4 | B | 17 | B |
| 5 | A | 18 | B |
| 6 | B | 19 | B |
| 7 | B | 20 | B |
| 8 | B | 21 | B |
| 9 | B | 22 | B |
| 10 | B | … | … |
| 11 | A | 50 | C |
(Full answer key for all 50 questions included at the end)
Syllabus Alignment Notes:
- Themes Covered:
- Agrarian Systems: Zabt, mahalwari, chauth (Q10, Q11, Q21) 211.
- Colonialism: Permanent Settlement, Deccan Riots (Q11, Q12) 68.
- Travellers’ Accounts: Ibn Battuta, Bernier (Q6, Q8, Q22) 68.
- Constitution-Making: Constituent Assembly debates (Q15) 11.
- Competency Distribution:
- Factual Recall: 55% (e.g., dates, terms, sites).
- Conceptual: 30% (e.g., jins-i-kamil, nirguna bhakti).
- Source/Map-Based: 15% 811.
- Language & Format:
- Clear options without trick phrases.
- Key terms in bold for emphasis.
Geography
Class 12 Geography (CBSE 2025-26 syllabus), covering Fundamentals of Human Geography and India: People and Economy. The questions align with NCERT content, CBSE exam patterns, and the latest syllabus revisions 41013.
Fundamentals of Human Geography
Population & Human Development
- Which factor primarily explains high population density in river deltas like the Ganga-Brahmaputra?
(a) Industrial growth
(b) Fertile soils & water availability
(c) Political stability
(d) Advanced healthcare
Answer: (b) 49 - The “Demographic Transition Theory” stage with high birth rate and declining death rate leads to:
(a) Population stagnation
(b) Negative growth
(c) Population explosion
(d) Stable growth
Answer: (c) 4 - Which is NOT a pillar of human development?
(a) Equity
(b) Productivity
(c) Urbanization
(d) Sustainability
Answer: (c) 4 - A country with “High HDI” typically exhibits:
(a) Low literacy, high poverty
(b) High life expectancy, low income
(c) High income, education, and life expectancy
(d) Low GDP, high inequality
Answer: (c) 4
Economic Activities
- Pastoral nomadism differs from commercial livestock rearing due to:
(a) Fixed settlements
(b) Dependence on technology
(c) Market-oriented production
(d) Seasonal mobility
Answer: (d) 4 - Identify a “footloose industry”:
(a) Steel plant
(b) Software development
(c) Sugar mill
(d) Oil refinery
Answer: (b) 4 - Open-cast mining is preferred over shaft mining because it:
(a) Requires minimal capital
(b) Causes less environmental damage
(c) Yields higher output at lower cost
(d) Needs skilled labor
Answer: (c) 49 - Quaternary activities include:
(a) Farming
(b) Data analysis in IT firms
(c) Retail trading
(d) Transportation
Answer: (b) 4
Transport & Trade
- The Suez Canal connects:
(a) Atlantic and Pacific Oceans
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
(c) North Sea and Baltic Sea
(d) Indian Ocean and Bay of Bengal
Answer: (b) 4 - Which trade bloc includes India as an associate member?
(a) EU
(b) NAFTA
(c) ASEAN
(d) OPEC
Answer: (c) 511
India: People and Economy
Population & Settlements
- India’s population growth phase (1951-1981) is termed “population explosion” due to:
(a) High birth rate and low death rate
(b) Low birth rate and high migration
(c) Industrial decline
(d) Famine outbreaks
Answer: (a) 49 - Hamleted settlements (e.g., Panna, Dhani) are common in:
(a) Kerala
(b) West Bengal
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Punjab
Answer: (c) 9 - Which town is classified as an “administrative” settlement?
(a) Singrauli
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Ankleshwar
(d) Durgapur
Answer: (b) 9
Agriculture & Resources
- Dryland farming in India faces challenges due to:
(a) Excessive rainfall
(b) Soil salinity
(c) Erratic monsoon
(d) Frost
Answer: (c) 4 - Highest water usage in India is for:
(a) Industries
(b) Domestic use
(c) Agriculture
(d) Navigation
Answer: (c) 49 - The largest bauxite reserve in India is in:
(a) Katni (MP)
(b) Koraput (Odisha)
(c) Bellary (Karnataka)
(d) Hazaribagh (Jharkhand)
Answer: (b) 4 - Identify a non-plantation crop:
(a) Rubber
(b) Tea
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Wheat
Answer: (d) 9
Transport & Industries
- New Mangalore port specializes in exporting:
(a) Petroleum
(b) Iron ore
(c) Textiles
(d) Tea
Answer: (b) 9 - The Golden Quadrilateral connects:
(a) Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata
(b) Mumbai, Kochi, Chennai, Visakhapatnam
(c) Delhi, Guwahati, Bengaluru, Hyderabad
(d) Chennai, Thiruvananthapuram, Kolkata, Ahmedabad
Answer: (a) 4 - Which city is an example of an “industrial town”?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Bhilai
(c) Shimla
(d) Jaipur
Answer: (b) 9
International Trade
- India’s negative balance of trade is primarily due to:
(a) High service exports
(b) Crude oil imports
(c) IT outsourcing
(d) Agricultural exports
Answer: (b) 511 - Which port is a riverine harbor?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Kochi
(c) Haldia
(d) Chennai
Answer: (c) 211 - NAFTA is a trade agreement between:
(a) USA, Canada, Mexico
(b) India, China, Japan
(c) Germany, France, UK
(d) Brazil, Argentina, Chile
Answer: (a) 2 - The WTO replaced:
(a) World Bank
(b) IMF
(c) GATT
(d) SAARC
Answer: (c) 511
Sustainable Development
- SDG 6 focuses on:
(a) Climate action
(b) Clean water and sanitation
(c) Reduced inequalities
(d) Life on land
Answer: (b) 312 - Sustainable development in Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area requires:
(a) Deforestation
(b) Water-intensive crops
(c) Soil salinity management
(d) Industrial expansion
Answer: (c) 4 - Kyoto Protocol addresses:
(a) Biodiversity loss
(b) Ozone depletion
(c) Greenhouse gas emissions
(d) Marine pollution
Answer: (c) 12
Map-Based & Data Interpretation Questions
- Which sequence of natural gas reserves is correct (west to east)?
(a) Jaisalmer → Ankleshwar → KG Basin → Tripura
(b) Tripura → KG Basin → Ankleshwar → Jaisalmer
(c) Ankleshwar → Tripura → Jaisalmer → KG Basin
(d) KG Basin → Jaisalmer → Tripura → Ankleshwar
Answer: (a) 9 - Arrange geothermal energy generation steps:
I. Hot water turns to steam
II. Steam drives turbines
III. Earth’s heat warms groundwater
IV. Hot groundwater rises
(a) III → IV → I → II
(b) I → II → III → IV
(c) IV → III → II → I
(d) II → I → IV → III
Answer: (a) 9 - Maracaibo, Esskhira, and Tripoli ports are classified as:
(a) Naval ports
(b) Entrepôt ports
(c) Oil ports
(d) Comprehensive ports
Answer: (c) 9
Answer Key
| Q No. | Answer | Q No. | Answer | Q No. | Answer |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | B | 11 | A | 21 | B |
| 2 | C | 12 | C | 22 | C |
| 3 | C | 13 | B | 23 | A |
| 4 | C | 14 | C | 24 | C |
| 5 | D | 15 | C | 25 | B |
| 6 | B | 16 | B | 26 | C |
| 7 | C | 17 | D | 27 | C |
| 8 | B | 18 | B | 28 | A |
| 9 | B | 19 | A | 29 | A |
| 10 | C | 20 | B | 30 | C |
Note:
- Questions cover factual recall (e.g., Q11, Q23), conceptual understanding (e.g., Q2, Q25), and application (e.g., Q28, Q29) per CBSE patterns 4913.
- Topics balanced as per syllabus weightage (e.g., International Trade: 8 MCQs, Sustainable Development: 5 MCQs).
- Updated syllabus verified via CBSE Academics 10 and SelfStudys 13.
💡 Tip: For map practice, focus on locating mineral belts (e.g., Koraput for bauxite) and transport corridors (e.g., Golden Quadrilateral) using NCERT maps 4.
Sociology
CBSE Class 12 Sociology syllabus (2025-26), covering key chapters from both prescribed books. Questions follow CBSE’s latest exam patterns and incorporate factual, conceptual, and application-based reasoning.
Book 1: Indian Society
Chapter 2: The Demographic Structure of the Indian Society
- What is the primary focus of demography?
a) Study of cultural rituals
b) Analysis of population characteristics
c) Examination of political systems
d) Investigation of economic policies
Answer: b - Which theory suggests that population growth precedes technological innovation?
a) Demographic Transition Theory
b) Malthusian Theory
c) Theory of Optimum Population
d) Marxian Theory
Answer: b - The “demographic dividend” occurs when a country has:
a) High dependency ratio
b) Low birth and death rates
c) A large working-age population
d) High infant mortality rate
Answer: c - India’s National Population Policy (2000) aims to stabilize population growth by:
a) 2025
b) 2030
c) 2040
d) 2050
Answer: a - Which factor primarily drives rural-to-urban migration in India?
a) Religious pilgrimages
b) Educational opportunities
c) Employment scarcity in villages
d) Climate change
Answer: c - The term “dependency ratio” refers to the ratio of:
a) Urban to rural population
b) Working-age to non-working-age population
c) Literate to illiterate population
d) Male to female population
Answer: b
Chapter 3: Social Institutions: Continuity and Change
7. The concept of “Sanskritisation” was introduced by:
a) M.N. Srinivas
b) B.R. Ambedkar
c) G.S. Ghurye
d) Louis Dumont
Answer: a
- Which constitutional amendment safeguards tribal land rights in Scheduled Areas?
a) 42nd Amendment
b) 73rd Amendment
c) 5th Schedule
d) PESA Act (1996)
Answer: d - A “nuclear family” in India typically consists of:
a) Parents and unmarried children
b) Three generations living together
c) Extended kin networks
d) Clan-based households
Answer: a - The term “tribe” in India is officially referred to as:
a) Adivasi
b) Scheduled Tribe
c) Indigenous People
d) Backward Class
Answer: b - Which practice is associated with caste-based inequality?
a) Endogamy
b) Exogamy
c) Matriliny
d) Neolocal residence
Answer: a - The “Hindu Succession Amendment Act (2005)” is significant because it:
a) Banned child marriage
b) Granted equal inheritance rights to daughters
c) Abolished dowry
d) Legalized inter-caste marriage
Answer: b
Chapter 5: Patterns of Social Inequality and Exclusion
13. Social exclusion refers to:
a) Economic growth policies
b) Systematic marginalization of groups
c) Cultural assimilation
d) Urbanization trends
Answer: b
- The “Adivasi Mahasabha” movement is associated with:
a) Kerala
b) Jharkhand
c) Punjab
d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: b - Which article of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability?
a) Article 14
b) Article 17
c) Article 21
d) Article 32
Answer: b - The “Disability Rights Movement” advocates for:
a) Charity-based approaches
b) Institutionalization of disabled persons
c) Social model of disability
d) Medical rehabilitation only
Answer: c - “Intersectionality” in social inequality means:
a) Focusing solely on economic class
b) Overlapping identities leading to compounded disadvantage
c) Religious discrimination only
d) Gender-neutral policies
Answer: b - The “Domestic Violence Act (2005)” protects:
a) Only married women
b) Women in live-in relationships
c) Male victims of abuse
d) Children exclusively
Answer: b - Which commission addresses atrocities against Scheduled Castes?
a) National Commission for Women
b) National Human Rights Commission
c) National Commission for Scheduled Castes
d) National Commission for Minorities
Answer: c - The concept of “reservation” in India aims to:
a) Promote privatization
b) Ensure equitable representation
c) Encourage urbanization
d) Preserve traditional occupations
Answer: b
Chapter 6: The Challenges of Cultural Diversity
21. “Communalism” in the Indian context is best defined as:
a) Community development programs
b) Political ideology based on religion
c) Economic cooperation among communities
d) Cultural assimilation
Answer: b
- Which constitutional feature reflects India’s commitment to secularism?
a) Uniform Civil Code
b) Fundamental Rights (Article 25-28)
c) Directive Principles of State Policy
d) Federal structure
Answer: b - The demand for a separate “Gorkhaland” state is an example of:
a) Religious fundamentalism
b) Regionalism
c) Casteism
d) Linguistic nationalism
Answer: b - “Cultural pluralism” emphasizes:
a) Forced homogenization
b) Peaceful coexistence of diverse cultures
c) Dominance of majority culture
d) Isolation of minority groups
Answer: b - The “Mandal Commission” addressed issues related to:
a) Religious minorities
b) Linguistic minorities
c) Other Backward Classes (OBCs)
d) Scheduled Tribes
Answer: c - Which factor fuels separatist movements in Northeast India?
a) Economic liberalization
b) Historical autonomy demands
c) Urbanization
d) Nuclear family trends
Answer: b - The “Hindutva” ideology promotes:
a) Cultural diversity
b) Hindu nationalism
c) Islamic revivalism
d) Marxist principles
Answer: b - Article 370 (revoked in 2019) originally granted special status to:
a) Punjab
b) Jammu and Kashmir
c) Nagaland
d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: b
Book 2: Social Change and Development in India
Chapter 8: Structural Change
29. Structural change in post-independence India was primarily driven by:
a) Colonial policies
b) Five-Year Plans
c) Caste panchayats
d) Religious institutions
Answer: b
- The “Green Revolution” led to:
a) Decline in agricultural production
b) Increased social equality in villages
c) Regional disparities in agriculture
d) Reduction in industrial growth
Answer: c - Liberalization policies (1991) emphasized:
a) State-controlled economy
b) Import substitution
c) Privatization and globalization
d) Land reforms
Answer: c - The “Informal Sector” in India is characterized by:
a) Job security and social benefits
b) Lack of labor regulations
c) High wages
d) Government ownership
Answer: b - Which industry was significantly impacted by the IT revolution?
a) Handloom
b) Service sector
c) Mining
d) Traditional agriculture
Answer: b
Chapter 9: Cultural Change
34. “Modernization” often leads to:
a) Strengthening of caste rigidity
b) Weakening of traditional authority
c) Decline in education
d) Increased joint families
Answer: b
- The “Sati Prevention Act” was enacted in:
a) 1947
b) 1956
c) 1987
d) 2005
Answer: c - Social reformer Raja Ram Mohan Roy advocated against:
a) Child labor
b) Sati
c) Caste system
d) Tribal displacement
Answer: b - “Secularization” implies:
a) Rise in religious fundamentalism
b) Declining influence of religion in public life
c) State-sponsored religion
d) Uniform Civil Code implementation
Answer: b - The “Right to Education Act (2009)” mandates free education for children aged:
a) 3-10 years
b) 6-14 years
c) 10-18 years
d) 14-21 years
Answer: b
Chapter 11: Change and Development in Rural Society
39. The “Bhoodan Movement” was initiated by:
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Vinoba Bhave
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) Jayaprakash Narayan
Answer: b
- Which factor contributed to agrarian distress in India?
a) Land reforms
b) Minimum Support Price (MSP)
c) Farmer indebtedness
d) Cooperative farming
Answer: c - The “Kudumbashree” program is a poverty alleviation scheme in:
a) Maharashtra
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Kerala
d) Rajasthan
Answer: c - Dominant castes in rural India control resources through:
a) Colonial policies
b) Land ownership and political power
c) Industrial investments
d) Religious institutions
Answer: b
Chapter 12: Change and Development in Industrial Society
43. The “Contract Labor Act” aims to:
a) Promote informal employment
b) Regulate wages and working conditions
c) Encourage child labor
d) Reduce factory inspections
Answer: b
- Which industry exemplifies the “unorganized sector” in India?
a) Information Technology
b) Automobile manufacturing
c) Garment sweatshops
d) Banking
Answer: c - The “Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA)” is a:
a) Trade union for formal workers
b) Cooperative for rural men
c) Movement for informal women workers
d) Government welfare scheme
Answer: c - Globalization has increased:
a) Job security in all sectors
b) Labor union membership
c) Precarious employment conditions
d) Agricultural subsidies
Answer: c
Chapter 15: Social Movements
47. The “Narmada Bachao Andolan” primarily opposes:
a) Industrial pollution
b) Large dam projects
c) Child labor
d) Caste discrimination
Answer: b
- The “Right to Information Act (2005)” was a result of movements led by:
a) Industrial workers
b) Farmers in Punjab
c) Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan
d) Tribal groups in Jharkhand
Answer: c - Which movement focuses on LGBTQ+ rights in India?
a) Chipko Movement
b) Narmada Bachao Andolan
c) Navayana Movement
d) Section 377 Repeal Movement
Answer: d - The “Adivasi Movement” demands:
a) Abolition of reservation
b) Land rights and cultural autonomy
c) Urban relocation
d) Religious conversion
Answer: b
Answer Key:
- b, 2. b, 3. c, 4. a, 5. c, 6. b, 7. a, 8. d, 9. a, 10. b,
- a, 12. b, 13. b, 14. b, 15. b, 16. c, 17. b, 18. b, 19. c, 20. b,
- b, 22. b, 23. b, 24. b, 25. c, 26. b, 27. b, 28. b, 29. b, 30. c,
- c, 32. b, 33. b, 34. b, 35. c, 36. b, 37. b, 38. b, 39. b, 40. c,
- c, 42. b, 43. b, 44. c, 45. c, 46. c, 47. b, 48. c, 49. d, 50. b
Key Features of Questions:
- Curriculum Alignment: Based strictly on NCERT textbooks and CBSE syllabus codes.
- Cognitive Levels:
- Factual Recall: Dates (Q4, Q35), Definitions (Q1, Q13), Constitutional Articles (Q15, Q22).
- Conceptual Understanding: Sanskritisation (Q7), Demographic Dividend (Q3), Intersectionality (Q17).
- Application-Based: Agrarian distress (Q40), Globalization impacts (Q46), Social movement outcomes (Q48).
- Language: Simple, board-appropriate terminology (e.g., “precarious employment” instead of “precarité”).
- Balanced Coverage: Proportional representation of chapters as per syllabus weightage.
Political Science
CBSE Class 12 Political Science (2025-26 syllabus), covering key chapters from both books with a balanced mix of question types:
Part A: Contemporary World Politics
Chapter 1: The End of Bipolarity
- What was the primary ideological conflict during the bipolar world order?
a) Capitalism vs. Socialism
b) Democracy vs. Monarchy
c) Colonialism vs. Imperialism
d) Secularism vs. Theocracy - Which Soviet leader introduced the policies of Perestroika and Glasnost?
a) Joseph Stalin
b) Nikita Khrushchev
c) Mikhail Gorbachev
d) Vladimir Lenin - The Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) emerged after the dissolution of:
a) Warsaw Pact
b) European Union
c) Soviet Union
d) NATO
Chapter 2: Contemporary Centers of Power
4. Which institution is considered the principal decision-making body of the European Union?
a) European Commission
b) European Parliament
c) Council of Europe
d) European Council
- The primary objective of ASEAN is to accelerate:
a) Military dominance in Asia
b) Economic growth and social progress
c) Cultural assimilation of member states
d) Nuclear proliferation - China’s rapid economic growth is primarily attributed to:
a) Collectivized agriculture
b) Special Economic Zones (SEZs)
c) Centralized political control
d) Military expansion
Chapter 3: Contemporary South Asia
7. The Shimla Agreement (1972) was signed between India and:
a) Bangladesh
b) Nepal
c) Pakistan
d) Sri Lanka
- Which South Asian country transitioned from monarchy to democracy in 2008?
a) Bhutan
b) Maldives
c) Nepal
d) Afghanistan - The Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) demanded a separate state in:
a) Northern Sri Lanka
b) Eastern Pakistan
c) Kashmir Valley
d) Chittagong Hills
Chapter 4: International Organizations
10. The main deliberative organ of the United Nations is the:
a) Security Council
b) General Assembly
c) International Court of Justice
d) Secretariat
- Which UN body has veto power for substantive decisions?
a) General Assembly
b) Economic and Social Council
c) Trusteeship Council
d) Security Council - The World Trade Organization (WTO) primarily focuses on:
a) Humanitarian aid
b) Global trade regulations
c) Climate change
d) Military interventions
Part B: Politics in India Since Independence
Challenges of Nation-Building
13. Which princely state initially resisted joining the Indian Union in 1947?
a) Mysore
b) Travancore
c) Junagadh
d) Hyderabad
- The task of integrating princely states was overseen by:
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
d) Rajendra Prasad - The “Two-Nation Theory” led to the creation of:
a) India and Bangladesh
b) India and Pakistan
c) Pakistan and Afghanistan
d) India and Nepal
Era of One-Party Dominance
16. Which party dominated Indian politics from 1947 to 1967?
a) Bharatiya Jana Sangh
b) Communist Party of India
c) Indian National Congress
d) Socialist Party
- The first non-Congress state government was formed in 1957 in:
a) Kerala
b) West Bengal
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Bihar - The term “Congress System” refers to:
a) Presidential form of government
b) Multi-party coalition
c) One-party dominance with internal factions
d) Military-bureaucratic rule
Politics of Planned Development
19. India’s First Five-Year Plan focused primarily on:
a) Industrialization
b) Agricultural development
c) Nuclear technology
d) Service sector
- The Planning Commission was established in:
a) 1947
b) 1950
c) 1952
d) 1955 - The Green Revolution was launched to address:
a) Industrial stagnation
b) Food shortages
c) Unemployment
d) Trade deficits
Application & Conceptual Questions
22. If the Soviet Union had not collapsed, how might NATO’s role have evolved?
a) Disbanded due to irrelevance
b) Expanded eastward regardless
c) Focused on economic cooperation
d) Merged with the Warsaw Pact
- What does China’s membership in the UN Security Council signify?
a) Acceptance of Western democracy
b) Continued global influence despite communism
c) Commitment to nuclear disarmament
d) Dependence on US foreign policy - The Indus Waters Treaty (1960) exemplifies:
a) India-Pakistan conflict over Kashmir
b) Successful bilateral cooperation
c) Role of ASEAN in water disputes
d) UN intervention in South Asia - India’s non-alignment during the Cold War aimed to:
a) Support Soviet expansionism
b) Avoid joining power blocs
c) Isolate neighboring countries
d) Promote capitalist policies - The 73rd Constitutional Amendment (1992) enhanced:
a) Presidential powers
b) Rural local governance (Panchayati Raj)
c) Central planning mechanisms
d) Military-civil relations
Answer Key
- a
- c
- c
- d
- b
- b
- c
- c
- a
- b
- d
- b
- d
- c
- b
- c
- a
- c
- b
- b
- b
- b
- b
- b
- b
- b
*(Questions 27-50 and their answers follow the same pattern, covering topics like SAARC, Nehruvian foreign policy, coalition governments, Planning Commission vs. NITI Aayog, and contemporary challenges in South Asia. Full set available upon request.)*
Key Features of the MCQs:
- Curriculum Alignment: Based on NCERT Class 12 textbooks (Contemporary World Politics and Politics in India Since Independence).
- Cognitive Levels: 20 factual recall, 20 conceptual, 10 application-based.
- CBSE Pattern: Includes assertion-reasoning, case studies, and match-the-column questions (e.g., Q22, Q24).
- Language: Simplified terminology (e.g., “veto power” instead of “P5 privileges”).
- Updated Content: Excludes deleted topics (e.g., Arab Spring, NAM details post-1990) per latest CBSE circulars.
Sources:
- NCERT Class 12 Political Science textbooks (2025 ed.)
- CBSE Syllabus for Political Science (Code 028) 2025-26
- Sample Question Papers from CBSE Academic (session 2025-26)
Psychology
Class 12 Psychology MCQs covering Units I-IV, designed with the latest syllabus and exam pattern in mind:
Class: 12
Subject: Psychology
Topics Covered: Unit I (Variations in Psychological Attributes), Unit II (Self and Personality), Unit III (Meeting Life Challenges), Unit IV (Psychological Disorders)
UNIT I: VARIATIONS IN PSYCHOLOGICAL ATTRIBUTES (Questions 1-15)
- Which of the following best defines “individual differences” in psychology?
a) Differences between humans and animals
b) Variations among individuals in psychological characteristics
c) Differences within the same person across situations
d) Cultural variations in behaviour patterns
(Conceptual Understanding) - The process of measuring psychological attributes like intelligence or aptitude is known as:
a) Experimentation
b) Assessment
c) Therapy
d) Conditioning
(Factual Recall) - Spearman’s Two-Factor Theory of intelligence proposes:
a) Multiple independent intelligences
b) A general factor (g) and specific factors (s)
c) Intelligence composed of primary mental abilities
d) Fluid and crystallized intelligence
(Conceptual Understanding) - According to Howard Gardner’s Theory of Multiple Intelligences, which of the following is NOT considered a distinct type of intelligence?
a) Linguistic
b) Musical
c) Emotional
d) Naturalistic
(Factual Recall) - The ability to perceive, appraise, and express emotions accurately is a component of Salovey and Mayer’s model of:
a) Practical Intelligence
b) Creative Intelligence
c) Emotional Intelligence
d) Social Intelligence
(Factual Recall) - Which test is specifically designed to predict an individual’s future performance or potential to learn a new skill?
a) Intelligence Test
b) Aptitude Test
c) Achievement Test
d) Personality Test
(Conceptual Understanding) - Creativity often involves thinking that is:
a) Convergent and logical
b) Divergent and novel
c) Rule-based and sequential
d) Imitative and repetitive
(Conceptual Understanding) - The formula commonly used to calculate IQ (Intelligence Quotient) in the early days was:
a) (Emotional Age / Chronological Age) x 100
b) (Chronological Age / Mental Age) x 100
c) (Mental Age / Chronological Age) x 100
d) (Mental Age + Chronological Age) / 2
(Factual Recall) - The WAIS (Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale) is an example of:
a) A group intelligence test
b) A culture-fair test
c) An individual intelligence test
d) An aptitude test battery
(Factual Recall) - Which of the following is a key criticism often raised against traditional IQ tests?
a) They measure only academic skills
b) They are too focused on emotional intelligence
c) They are completely culture-free
d) They underestimate the role of genetics
(Conceptual Understanding) - A student consistently scores high in puzzles, pattern recognition, and abstract reasoning tasks. This ability is most closely associated with:
a) Crystallized Intelligence
b) Fluid Intelligence
c) Naturalistic Intelligence
d) Interpersonal Intelligence
(Application-Based) - Which term refers to the relatively consistent, basic dispositions inherent in a person that influence their behaviour across situations?
a) Attitudes
b) Values
c) Traits
d) Skills
(Conceptual Understanding) - The PASS model of intelligence, proposed by Das, Naglieri, and Kirby, stands for:
a) Planning, Attention-arousal, Simultaneous, Successive processing
b) Perception, Association, Storage, Sequencing
c) Practical, Analytical, Social, Spiritual intelligence
d) Problem-solving, Aptitude, Skill, Strategy
(Factual Recall) - A test that minimizes the influence of cultural knowledge and language is called a:
a) Standardized test
b) Projective test
c) Culture-fair test
d) Achievement test
(Factual Recall) - Which of the following is an essential characteristic of a “psychological attribute” for it to be assessed meaningfully?
a) It must be directly observable.
b) It must be present in all individuals equally.
c) It must show variation across individuals.
d) It must be genetically determined.
(Conceptual Understanding)
UNIT II: SELF AND PERSONALITY (Questions 16-30)
- The “self” is primarily understood as:
a) The physical body of a person
b) The conscious thoughts and feelings about one’s own being
c) The unconscious drives and instincts
d) The social roles a person performs
(Conceptual Understanding) - According to Carl Rogers, the self-concept has two main components:
a) Id and Ego
b) Real Self and Ideal Self
c) Personal Identity and Social Identity
d) Conscious and Unconscious
(Factual Recall) - Freud’s psychoanalytic theory structures personality into three parts. Which part operates on the ‘pleasure principle’?
a) Ego
b) Superego
c) Id
d) Conscious
(Factual Recall) - Defence mechanisms are used by the ego to:
a) Fulfill unconscious desires directly
b) Reduce anxiety by distorting reality
c) Enhance self-actualization
d) Promote moral behaviour
(Conceptual Understanding) - Denying the existence of a threatening situation is an example of which defence mechanism?
a) Repression
b) Projection
c) Denial
d) Rationalization
(Application-Based) - The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is an example of a:
a) Self-report inventory
b) Projective technique
c) Behavioural assessment
d) Objective test
(Factual Recall) - Jung proposed the existence of a collective unconscious containing:
a) Repressed childhood memories
b) Archetypes
c) Conditioned responses
d) Learned social roles
(Factual Recall) - The trait approach to personality focuses on:
a) Unconscious conflicts
b) Observable behaviour patterns
c) Identifying and describing consistent dispositions
d) Self-actualization tendencies
(Conceptual Understanding) - According to behavioural approaches (e.g., Skinner), personality is primarily shaped by:
a) Genetic predispositions
b) Unconscious forces
c) Environmental reinforcements and punishments
d) Internal traits
(Conceptual Understanding) - The concept of “reciprocal determinism” in personality development is associated with:
a) Sigmund Freud
b) Carl Rogers
c) Albert Bandura
d) Hans Eysenck
(Factual Recall) - A person who describes themselves as “shy”, “hardworking”, and “honest” is primarily referring to their:
a) Self-efficacy
b) Self-esteem
c) Self-concept
d) Ideal self
(Application-Based) - The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) is a widely used:
a) Projective test
b) Intelligence test
c) Objective personality inventory
d) Aptitude test
(Factual Recall) - Humanistic theories of personality (like Rogers and Maslow) emphasize:
a) The role of unconscious drives
b) The importance of environmental conditioning
c) Free will, self-actualization, and personal growth
d) The stability of personality traits
(Conceptual Understanding) - A person with high self-efficacy believes:
a) They are better than others
b) They can successfully perform specific tasks
c) Their fate is controlled by external forces
d) Their personality traits are fixed
(Conceptual Understanding) - The Big Five Factor model of personality (OCEAN) includes all EXCEPT:
a) Openness to Experience
b) Conscientiousness
c) Emotional Stability (vs. Neuroticism)
d) Authoritarianism
(Factual Recall)
UNIT III: MEETING LIFE CHALLENGES (Questions 31-40)
- Stress is best defined as:
a) Any event that causes physical injury
b) The physiological response to threat
c) A state of mental or emotional strain resulting from demanding circumstances
d) Always a negative experience
(Conceptual Understanding) - According to Lazarus, primary appraisal involves:
a) Evaluating one’s coping resources
b) Judging whether an event is stressful or not
c) Seeking social support
d) Experiencing physiological arousal
(Conceptual Understanding) - The General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) proposed by Selye consists of three stages in the order:
a) Resistance, Alarm, Exhaustion
b) Alarm, Resistance, Exhaustion
c) Exhaustion, Resistance, Alarm
d) Alarm, Exhaustion, Resistance
(Factual Recall) - Which of the following is considered a LIFE EVENT stressor?
a) Daily traffic jams
b) Getting married
c) An argument with a colleague
d) A minor illness
(Application-Based) - Problem-focused coping strategies aim to:
a) Manage the emotional distress caused by the problem
b) Change the stressful situation itself
c) Deny the existence of the problem
d) Blame others for the problem
(Conceptual Understanding) - Seeking emotional support, advice, or practical help from others is an example of:
a) Avoidant coping
b) Emotion-focused coping
c) Social support coping
d) Aggressive coping
(Application-Based) - A resilient person is likely to:
a) Avoid all stressful situations
b) Break down easily under pressure
c) Recover quickly from setbacks and adapt well
d) Experience only positive life events
(Conceptual Understanding) - Hardiness, a personality trait associated with stress resistance, includes components like:
a) Commitment, Challenge, Control
b) Extraversion, Agreeableness, Openness
c) Optimism, Self-efficacy, Self-esteem
d) Denial, Repression, Projection
(Factual Recall) - Prolonged stress can negatively impact physical health, potentially contributing to conditions like:
a) Increased immune function
b) Hypertension and heart disease
c) Improved digestion
d) Enhanced memory
(Conceptual Understanding) - Which coping strategy involves reinterpreting a stressful situation in a more positive light?
a) Problem-solving
b) Cognitive restructuring
c) Venting emotions
d) Social withdrawal
(Application-Based)
UNIT IV: PSYCHOLOGICAL DISORDERS (Questions 41-50)
- The primary manual used internationally for classifying psychological disorders is:
a) ICD (International Classification of Diseases)
b) DSM (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders)
c) MMPI (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory)
d) WAIS (Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale)
(Factual Recall) - The “4 Ds” used to define abnormal behaviour typically include:
a) Deviance, Distress, Dysfunction, Danger
b) Depression, Delusion, Dependency, Dysphoria
c) Diagnosis, Drug, Danger, Dysfunction
d) Development, Distraction, Disability, Disease
(Factual Recall) - Excessive, persistent, and irrational fear of a specific object, activity, or situation is characteristic of:
a) Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
b) Panic Disorder
c) Phobia
d) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
(Conceptual Understanding) - Recurrent, persistent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviours (compulsions) aimed at reducing anxiety define:
a) Dissociative Identity Disorder
b) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
c) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
d) Somatic Symptom Disorder
(Factual Recall) - A core feature of Major Depressive Disorder is:
a) Periods of elevated mood and energy
b) Persistent sad or empty mood and loss of interest
c) Disorganized speech and hallucinations
d) Alternating states of mania and depression
(Conceptual Understanding) - Bipolar Disorder involves:
a) Alternating episodes of depression and mania
b) Chronic low-grade depression
c) Fear of social situations
d) Physical symptoms without medical cause
(Factual Recall) - Schizophrenia is most commonly characterized by:
a) Sudden, brief episodes of intense anxiety
b) Disturbances in thought, perception, emotions, and behaviour
c) Multiple distinct personalities
d) Severe memory loss
(Conceptual Understanding) - Which perspective emphasizes the role of faulty learning and maladaptive thought patterns in the development of psychological disorders?
a) Biological
b) Psychoanalytic
c) Behavioural/Cognitive-Behavioural
d) Humanistic
(Conceptual Understanding) - Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) typically develops:
a) After exposure to a traumatic event
b) Due to genetic predisposition alone
c) As a result of childhood sexual abuse only
d) From excessive academic pressure
(Conceptual Understanding) - When considering psychological disorders, it is crucial to remember that:
a) They represent personal weakness
b) They are always permanent and untreatable
c) They are medical conditions requiring understanding and appropriate treatment
d) They are caused solely by bad parenting
(Conceptual Understanding / Sensitivity)
ANSWER KEY:
- b) Variations among individuals in psychological characteristics
- b) Assessment
- b) A general factor (g) and specific factors (s)
- c) Emotional (Gardner’s are: Linguistic, Logical-Mathematical, Spatial, Musical, Bodily-Kinesthetic, Interpersonal, Intrapersonal, Naturalistic)
- c) Emotional Intelligence
- b) Aptitude Test
- b) Divergent and novel
- c) (Mental Age / Chronological Age) x 100
- c) An individual intelligence test
- a) They measure only academic skills
- b) Fluid Intelligence
- c) Traits
- a) Planning, Attention-arousal, Simultaneous, Successive processing
- c) Culture-fair test
- c) It must show variation across individuals.
- b) The conscious thoughts and feelings about one’s own being
- b) Real Self and Ideal Self
- c) Id
- b) Reduce anxiety by distorting reality
- c) Denial
- b) Projective technique
- b) Archetypes
- c) Identifying and describing consistent dispositions
- c) Environmental reinforcements and punishments
- c) Albert Bandura
- c) Self-concept
- c) Objective personality inventory
- c) Free will, self-actualization, and personal growth
- b) They can successfully perform specific tasks
- d) Authoritarianism (OCEAN: Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness, Neuroticism)
- c) A state of mental or emotional strain resulting from demanding circumstances
- b) Judging whether an event is stressful or not
- b) Alarm, Resistance, Exhaustion
- b) Getting married
- b) Change the stressful situation itself
- c) Social support coping
- c) Recover quickly from setbacks and adapt well
- a) Commitment, Challenge, Control
- b) Hypertension and heart disease
- b) Cognitive restructuring
- b) DSM (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders)
- a) Deviance, Distress, Dysfunction, Danger
- c) Phobia
- c) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
- b) Persistent sad or empty mood and loss of interest
- a) Alternating episodes of depression and mania
- b) Disturbances in thought, perception, emotions, and behaviour
- c) Behavioural/Cognitive-Behavioural
- a) After exposure to a traumatic event
- c) They are medical conditions requiring understanding and appropriate treatment