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Class 8

Mathematics

CBSE Class 8 Mathematics – Sample Question Paper (2024–25)

Subject: Mathematics
Class: 8
Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. The question paper is divided into four sections A, B, C, and D.
  3. Use of a calculator is not permitted.
  4. Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
  5. Marks are indicated against each question.

Section A (1 × 6 = 6 Marks)

Very Short Answer Questions – Attempt all questions. Each carries 1 mark.

  1. Fill in the blank: The cube of an even number is always _____.
  2. Write the additive inverse of −79\frac{-7}{9}9−7​.
  3. Find the value of 32×333^2 \times 3^332×33.
  4. Which quadrilateral has one pair of opposite sides parallel?
  5. State whether the graph of a constant function is a straight line or a curve.
  6. Simplify: (3x+2)2−(3x−2)2(3x + 2)^2 – (3x – 2)^2(3x+2)2−(3x−2)2

Section B (2 × 6 = 12 Marks)

Short Answer Type I – Attempt all questions. Each carries 2 marks.

  1. Solve the linear equation:
    4x−5=3x+24x – 5 = 3x + 24x−5=3x+2
  2. Write any two properties of rational numbers under multiplication.
  3. A cube has a volume of 729 cm3729 \, cm^3729cm3. Find the side of the cube.
  4. Represent the equation y=2x+3y = 2x + 3y=2x+3 on a graph paper (only tabular values needed here).
  5. Find the square root of 0.04 using the long division method.
  6. Convert: 12.5% into fraction and decimal.

Section C (3 × 8 = 24 Marks)

Short Answer Type II – Attempt all questions. Each carries 3 marks.

  1. Find the area of a trapezium whose parallel sides are 12 cm and 16 cm, and the height is 10 cm.
  2. Factorise the expression:
    x2+5x+6x^2 + 5x + 6×2+5x+6
  3. Find the amount and compound interest on ₹5000 for 2 years at 10% per annum compounded annually.
  4. Using appropriate identities, simplify:
    (a+b)2−(a−b)2(a + b)^2 – (a – b)^2(a+b)2−(a−b)2
  5. A car covers a distance of 120 km in 3 hours. How long will it take to cover 200 km at the same speed?
  6. In the given data: 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, find the mean, median and mode.
  7. Write any three properties of a parallelogram.
  8. Find the value of:
    (25)0+5−1\left( \frac{2}{5} \right)^0 + 5^{-1} (52​)0+5−1

Section D (4 × 8 = 32 Marks)

Long Answer Type – Attempt all questions. Each carries 4 marks.

  1. Draw a bar graph of the following data:
Favourite SubjectNo. of Students
Maths40
Science30
English20
Hindi25
Social Science15
  1. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 240 m and its length is 70 m. Find its width and area.
  2. Factorise:
    x3+64x^3 + 64×3+64
  3. A shopkeeper buys an article for ₹200 and sells it for ₹250. Find the profit percent. If he had sold it for ₹180, find the loss percent.
  4. The following table gives the number of students in a school using different modes of transport. Represent the data using a pie chart.
    (Do not draw the chart; write steps of calculation.)
Mode of TransportNo. of Students
Bicycle180
Bus270
Car90
Walk60
  1. Write the cubes of first five natural numbers. Using them, verify:
    (a+b)3=a3+b3+3ab(a+b)(a + b)^3 = a^3 + b^3 + 3ab(a + b)(a+b)3=a3+b3+3ab(a+b) for a=1,b=2a = 1, b = 2a=1,b=2
  2. A 25 m long wire is to be cut into pieces of equal length. What will be the length of each piece if 5 such pieces are obtained? Is this a case of direct or inverse proportion?
  3. Draw a line graph for the following data:
    (Only provide coordinate points and scale.)
    Months vs Rainfall (in mm)
  • January: 20
  • February: 40
  • March: 60
  • April: 30

Answer Key / Marking Scheme

Section A (1 mark each)

  1. Even
  2. 79\frac{7}{9}97​
  3. 35=2433^5 = 24335=243
  4. Trapezium
  5. Straight Line
  6. 24x24x24x

Section B (2 marks each)

  1. x=7x = 7x=7
  2. Closure and multiplicative identity
  3. Side = 7293=9 cm\sqrt[3]{729} = 9 \, cm3729​=9cm
  4. Points: (0,3), (1,5), (2,7)
  5. 0.04=0.2\sqrt{0.04} = 0.20.04​=0.2
  6. 18,0.125\frac{1}{8}, 0.12581​,0.125

Section C (3 marks each)

  1. 12×(12+16)×10=140 cm2\frac{1}{2} \times (12+16) \times 10 = 140 \, cm^221​×(12+16)×10=140cm2
  2. (x+2)(x+3)(x + 2)(x + 3)(x+2)(x+3)
  3. A = ₹6050, CI = ₹1050
  4. 4ab4ab4ab
  5. Speed = 40 km/h; Time = 5 hours
  6. Mean = 20, Median = 20, Mode = No mode
  7. Opposite sides equal, opposite angles equal, diagonals bisect each other
  8. 1+15=651 + \frac{1}{5} = \frac{6}{5}1+51​=56​

Section D (4 marks each)

  1. Bar graph with proper scale and labeling.
  2. Width = 50 m, Area = 3500 m²
  3. x3+64=(x+4)(x2−4x+16)x^3 + 64 = (x + 4)(x^2 – 4x + 16)x3+64=(x+4)(x2−4x+16)
  4. Profit% = 25%, Loss% = 10%
  5. Total = 600; Angles: 108°, 162°, 54°, 36°
  6. Cubes: 1, 8, 27, 64, 125; Verify both sides = 27
  7. Length of each = 5 m; Direct proportion
  8. Coordinates: (1,20), (2,40), (3,60), (4,30); Line graph shows trend.

English

CBSE Class 8 English Sample Paper (2024–25)

Subject: English
Class: 8
Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. Attempt all questions in the given order.
  3. Read the questions carefully before answering.
  4. Write neatly and attempt all parts of a question together.

Section A: Reading (10 Marks)

Q1. Read the following passage and answer the questions below: (5 marks)
One of the most amazing abilities of birds is migration. Every year, millions of birds fly thousands of kilometers to find the best ecological conditions and habitats for feeding, breeding, and raising their young. When the conditions at breeding sites become unfavourable, they migrate to regions where conditions are better.

(a) What is migration? (1)
(b) Why do birds migrate? (1)
(c) When do birds migrate? (1)
(d) Give a synonym for the word “unfavourable”. (1)
(e) Write one noun and one verb from the passage. (1)

Q2. Read the following poem extract and answer the questions: (5 marks)
“Some books are to be tasted, others to be swallowed, and some few to be chewed and digested.” – Francis Bacon

(a) What does the poet mean by “books to be tasted”? (1)
(b) What does “chewed and digested” refer to? (1)
(c) What is the central idea of the quote? (1)
(d) Identify one metaphor used. (1)
(e) Write a suitable title for this extract. (1)

Section B: Writing (15 Marks)

Q3. Write a story in about 120–150 words based on the following cues: (5 marks)
A lost puppy — raining — a kind stranger — home — reunion with owner

Q4. Write a diary entry describing your feelings after achieving a personal goal (100–120 words). (5 marks)

**Q5. You are the head student of your school. Draft a notice in about 50 words for a Debate Competition to be held in your school auditorium. (5 marks)

Section C: Grammar (15 Marks)

Q6. Do as directed: (1×5 = 5 marks)
(a) He will complete the project in time. (Change to passive voice)
(b) “I am not feeling well,” said Rina. (Change to indirect speech)
(c) Choose the correct form: She __________ (go/goes) to the gym every morning.
(d) Identify the adverb: She sang beautifully.
(e) Combine the two sentences using a suitable conjunction: He worked hard. He did not succeed.

**Q7. Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions: (1×4 = 4 marks)
(a) The cat is hiding ___ the table.
(b) He walked ___ the room silently.
(c) The book is ___ the shelf.
(d) We waited ___ the bus stop for an hour.

Q8. Match the idioms with their meanings: (1×3 = 3 marks)

IdiomMeaning
(a) Once in a blue moon(i) To be very happy
(b) Over the moon(ii) Very rarely
(c) Break the ice(iii) Start a conversation

Q9. Identify the type of noun and pronoun in the following sentence: (1×3 = 3 marks)
“Ravi gave it to Neha yesterday.”
(a) Ravi – ________
(b) It – ________
(c) Neha – ________

Section D: Literature (40 Marks)

Honeydew Textbook

Q10. Answer the following questions in 30–40 words each (Any 4): (4×3 = 12 marks)
(a) What was the ‘best Christmas present in the world’?
(b) What message does The Ant and the Cricket convey?
(c) How did the geography teacher explain the city’s structure in Geography Lesson?
(d) Why did Bepin Babu feel that Chunilal had nothing to gain by playing a trick on him?
(e) What was the lesson learnt by the narrator in The Summit Within?

**Q11. Answer any one in 80–100 words: (6 marks)
How does The Tsunami show both the destructive power of nature and the courage of human beings?

**Q12. Read the extract and answer the questions: (4 marks)
“A bargain is a bargain,” said the man.
“But I want nothing in return.”

(a) Who is the speaker here?
(b) What kind of bargain does the speaker want?
(c) What is the tone of this poem?
(d) Write one figure of speech used in the poem.

It So Happened Supplementary Reader

Q13. Answer the following questions in 30–40 words each (Any 4): (4×3 = 12 marks)
(a) Why did the camel develop a hump in How the Camel Got His Hump?
(b) How did the children in Children at Work show compassion?
(c) What happened to the giant’s heart in The Selfish Giant?
(d) Why did Swami say he had to go home in The Fight?
(e) What moral does The Treasure Within convey?

**Q14. Answer any one in 80–100 words: (6 marks)
Discuss the relevance of Ancient Education System of India in today’s modern educational practices.

Answer Key / Marking Scheme

Section A: Reading

  1. (a) Long-distance travel by birds
    (b) To find better conditions for living
    (c) When conditions become harsh
    (d) Adverse
    (e) Noun: migration; Verb: fly
  2. (a) Skimmed or briefly read books
    (b) Books that need deep understanding
    (c) Not all books are of equal value
    (d) Tasting/swallowing books = metaphor
    (e) The Value of Reading

Section B: Writing

  • Story: Clear structure, creative development
  • Diary: First person, emotional reflection
  • Notice: Format (heading/date/body/signature), clarity

Section C: Grammar

  1. (a) The project will be completed by him in time.
    (b) Rina said that she was not feeling well.
    (c) goes
    (d) beautifully
    (e) but
  2. (a) under
    (b) across
    (c) on
    (d) at
  3. (a) – (ii)
    (b) – (i)
    (c) – (iii)
  4. (a) Proper noun
    (b) Personal pronoun
    (c) Proper noun

Section D: Literature

Honeydew Short Answers (examples):
(a) A letter from a soldier found in an old desk
(b) Importance of hard work and planning
(c) Geography doesn’t explain city’s haphazard structure
(d) He was a trusted old friend
(e) Inner strength and courage matter most

Q11: Destruction shown by waves; courage shown by brave survivors, including kids and volunteers.

Q12:
(a) The man offering the bargain
(b) One that gives him freedom, not material wealth
(c) Reflective
(d) Metaphor

It So Happened Short Answers (examples):
(a) As a punishment for being lazy
(b) Helped a child earn a living
(c) It softened on meeting the little boy
(d) Excuse to avoid fighting
(e) True wealth lies in talent and creativity

Q14: Emphasizes teacher-student bond, holistic education, and discipline—still vital today.

Hindi

CBSE Class 8 Hindi Sample Paper (2024–25)

Subject: Hindi
Class: VIII
Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. Attempt all questions in the sequence.
  3. Answer as per the word limits given.
  4. Neat and clean handwriting will be awarded.

खंड – अ (पाठ्यपुस्तक आधारित प्रश्न)

(Section A: Literature – 30 Marks)

प्रश्न 1: (Vasant – 10 Marks)

(क) लाख की चूड़ियाँ पाठ में ममता और त्याग का उदाहरण दीजिए। (2 अंक)
(ख) कबीर की सखियाँ में से किसी एक साखी की व्याख्या अपने शब्दों में कीजिए। (2 अंक)
(ग) अकबरी लोटा कहानी में हास्य का कौन-कौन सा पक्ष देखने को मिलता है? (2 अंक)
(घ) पानी की कहानी पाठ में पानी की उपयोगिता को किस प्रकार दर्शाया गया है? (2 अंक)
(ङ) निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए (लंबा उत्तर – 2 अंक):
(i) सूर के पद में भक्ति की विशेषता क्या है?
(ii) यह सबसे कठिन समय नहीं कविता में कवि का आशय क्या है?

प्रश्न 2: (Durva – 10 Marks)

(क) दो गोरैया पाठ से लेखक ने क्या संदेश दिया है? (2 अंक)
(ख) सस्ते का चक्कर पाठ में ‘सस्ता’ कब महंगा साबित होता है, स्पष्ट कीजिए। (2 अंक)
(ग) हिंदी ने जिनकी जिंदगी बदल दी पाठ में लेखक की हिंदी के प्रति भावना स्पष्ट कीजिए। (2 अंक)
(घ) आषाढ़ का पहला दिन पाठ के आधार पर बताइए कि वर्षा ऋतु का वातावरण लेखक को कैसा अनुभव होता है। (2 अंक)
(ङ) निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए (लंबा उत्तर – 2 अंक):
(i) आओ पत्रिका निकालें पाठ में बच्चों के लिए पत्रिका निकालने का महत्व क्या है?
(ii) उठ किसान ओ पाठ में किसान को क्यों जागने के लिए कहा गया है?

प्रश्न 3: (Bharat ki Khoj – 5 Marks)

(क) अहमदनगर का किला पाठ में नेहरू जी ने जेल को किस प्रकार का अनुभव बताया है? (2 अंक)
(ख) सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता पाठ में उस समय की नगर योजना का क्या महत्व था? (2 अंक)
(ग) ‘नयी समस्याएँ’ पाठ के आधार पर भारत के सामने कौन-कौन सी नई चुनौतियाँ थीं? (1 अंक)

प्रश्न 4: (Sankshipt Buddhacharita – 5 Marks)

(क) ज्ञान प्राप्ति अध्याय में सिद्धार्थ को बुद्ध बनने के लिए कौन-कौन सी कठिनाइयों का सामना करना पड़ा? (2 अंक)
(ख) महापरिनिर्वाण का अर्थ और उसका महत्व स्पष्ट कीजिए। (2 अंक)
(ग) धर्मचक्र प्रवर्तन का क्या अर्थ है? (1 अंक)

खंड – ब (व्याकरण)

(Section B: Grammar – 15 Marks)

प्रश्न 5: रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए: (1×5 = 5 अंक)

(क) सत्य की ___ होती है।
(ख) सूरज ___ चमक रहा है।
(ग) विद्यार्थी पढ़ाई ___ लगे हुए हैं।
(घ) राम और श्याम ___ स्कूल जा रहे हैं।
(ङ) बड़ों का आदर करना हमारा ___ है।

प्रश्न 6: वाक्य परिवर्तन कीजिए (कृया के अनुसार): (1×3 = 3 अंक)

(क) वह मिठाई खा रहा है। (प्रेरणार्थक वाक्य)
(ख) मैं कल बाज़ार गया। (नकारात्मक वाक्य)
(ग) गंगा भारत की पवित्र नदी है। (प्रश्नवाचक वाक्य)

प्रश्न 7: सही विकल्प चुनिए: (1×4 = 4 अंक)

(क) ‘गृहस्थ’ शब्द का सही अर्थ है:
(i) गृह निर्माण करने वाला
(ii) विवाह कर चुका व्यक्ति
(iii) गृह में रहने वाला
(iv) गृहकार्य करने वाला

(ख) ‘पृथ्वी’ शब्द है:
(i) पुल्लिंग
(ii) स्त्रीलिंग
(iii) नपुंसक लिंग
(iv) कोई नहीं

(ग) विलोम शब्द चुनिए: उदय
(i) अस्त
(ii) आकाश
(iii) सूर्य
(iv) ग्रहण

(घ) कर्म शब्द का पर्यायवाची है:
(i) फल
(ii) कार्य
(iii) इच्छा
(iv) श्रम

प्रश्न 8: मुहावरे का अर्थ लिखकर वाक्य बनाइए: (1×3 = 3 अंक)

(क) नाक में दम करना
(ख) मुँह की खाना
(ग) आँखें दिखाना

खंड – स (लेखन कौशल)

(Section C: Writing – 15 Marks)

प्रश्न 9: किसी एक विषय पर 100–120 शब्दों में निबंध लिखिए: (5 अंक)

(i) जल ही जीवन है
(ii) मेरे प्रिय लेखक
(iii) मेरी पसंदीदा पुस्तक

प्रश्न 10: निम्न में से किसी एक पर पत्र लिखिए (औपचारिक या अनौपचारिक): (5 अंक)

(i) विद्यालय के पुस्तकालय में नई पुस्तकें जोड़ने हेतु प्रधानाचार्य को पत्र।
(ii) अपने मित्र को जन्मदिन की बधाई देते हुए पत्र।

प्रश्न 11: एक संवाद या अनुच्छेद लिखिए (80–100 शब्दों में): (5 अंक)

(i) मोबाइल फोन का बढ़ता उपयोग — दो मित्रों के बीच संवाद
(ii) विज्ञान और हमारा जीवन — अनुच्छेद

Answer Key / Marking Scheme

Section A (Literature)

  • Short answer (2 marks each):
    • Content: 1 mark
    • Language/presentation: 1 mark
  • Long answer (2 marks):
    • Relevance and completeness: 1.5 mark
    • Creativity and clarity: 0.5 mark

Section B (Grammar)

  • Fill-in-the-blanks (1 mark each):
    Expected answers:
    (क) विजय
    (ख) तेज़
    (ग) में
    (घ) साथ
    (ङ) कर्तव्य
  • Sentence transformation (1 mark each)
  • MCQs (1 mark each):
    Correct options:
    (क) ii
    (ख) ii
    (ग) i
    (घ) ii
  • Idioms:
    • नाक में दम करना – बहुत परेशान करना
    • मुँह की खाना – हार मानना
    • आँखें दिखाना – गुस्से से देखना

Each:

  • Meaning: 0.5
  • Sentence: 0.5

Section C (Writing)

  • Essay (5 marks):
    • Content: 3
    • Language and grammar: 1
    • Structure: 1
  • Letter (5 marks):
    • Format: 1
    • Content: 3
    • Language: 1
  • Dialogue/Paragraph (5 marks):
    • Relevance: 2.5
    • Coherence & fluency: 2
    • Grammar: 0.5

Social Science

📝 CBSE Class 8 – Social Science Sample Paper (2024–25)

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  • All questions are compulsory.
  • Answer the questions as per instructions.
  • Internal choice is provided where applicable.
  • Marks are indicated against each question.
  • Map question is to be attempted on the map attached.

🔹 SECTION A – Objective Type Questions (1 × 10 = 10 marks)

Q1. Choose the correct option (1 × 5 = 5 marks)

  1. The revolt of 1857 began from which of the following places?
    (a) Delhi
    (b) Kanpur
    (c) Meerut
    (d) Lucknow
  2. The Indian Constitution came into effect on:
    (a) 15 August 1947
    (b) 26 November 1949
    (c) 26 January 1950
    (d) 2 October 1950
  3. Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource?
    (a) Coal
    (b) Petroleum
    (c) Water
    (d) Natural gas
  4. What is the full form of MGNREGA?
    (a) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Education Guarantee Act
    (b) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
    (c) Mahatma Gandhi National Reform and Employment Guarantee Act
    (d) None of the above
  5. The upper house of the Indian Parliament is called:
    (a) Lok Sabha
    (b) Rajya Sabha
    (c) Vidhan Sabha
    (d) Lok Parishad

Q2. Fill in the blanks (1 × 5 = 5 marks)
6. _____________ are the basic support systems for a country, such as roads, railways, schools, and hospitals.
7. The Ryotwari system was introduced by _____________.
8. The key feature of secularism is separation of ____________ from the State.
9. The Chipko Movement was related to conservation of ____________.
10. ____________ resources are found in a fixed quantity in nature.

🔹 SECTION B – Very Short Answer Questions (2 × 6 = 12 marks)

Answer the following in 30–40 words each.

Q3. Why is the Indian Constitution considered a living document?
Q4. Define “industries.” Mention two types of industries.
Q5. Mention any two features of the Permanent Settlement.
Q6. What is the role of the judiciary in a democratic country?
Q7. What are public facilities? Give two examples.
Q8. Define natural vegetation. How is it classified?

🔹 SECTION C – Short Answer Questions (3 × 8 = 24 marks)

Answer the following in 60–80 words each.

Q9. How did the British expand their power from trade to territory in India?
Q10. Explain how women and social reformers worked to improve the status of women in the 19th century.
Q11. Write a short note on secularism in India. How does the Constitution safeguard secularism?
Q12. Why is agriculture important in India? Mention three major types of farming practices.
Q13. Explain any three functions of the Parliament in India.
Q14. What are the causes and effects of land degradation in India?
Q15. What is meant by confronting marginalisation? Give examples.
Q16. Why is the law important in ensuring social justice? Give examples from any two sectors.

🔹 SECTION D – Long Answer Questions (5 × 4 = 20 marks)

Answer the following in 100–120 words each.

Q17. (History) Describe the major events and significance of the Revolt of 1857.
OR
Explain the role of Mahatma Gandhi in the Indian National Movement.

Q18. (Geography) Explain the classification of natural resources. Provide examples of each type.
OR
Explain the importance of water, soil, and forest conservation with examples.

Q19. (Civics) How does the judiciary ensure justice in India? Explain with the help of examples.
OR
Discuss the importance of fundamental rights provided by the Constitution.

Q20. (Geography) Describe the major features of Indian agriculture and the problems faced by farmers.
OR
What is industrial pollution? Explain its types and suggest any two solutions.

🔹 SECTION E – Map Work (1 × 4 = 4 marks)

Q21. On the outline map of India, locate and label the following:
(a) Place from where the 1857 Revolt started
(b) Any one major soil type region in India
(c) A major cotton-producing state
(d) A major river valley agricultural region

(Attach map at the end for students to attempt)

✅ Answer Key / Marking Scheme

Section A (1 mark each)

  1. (c) Meerut
  2. (c) 26 January 1950
  3. (c) Water
  4. (b) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
  5. (b) Rajya Sabha
  6. Infrastructure
  7. Thomas Munro
  8. Religion
  9. Forests
  10. Non-renewable

Section B (2 marks each)

  • Clear, concise response: 2 marks
  • One valid point: 1 mark

Section C (3 marks each)

  • 3 key points = 3 marks
  • 2 points + 1 elaboration = 3 marks
  • Use of examples or contextual clarity adds value

Section D (5 marks each)

  • 4–5 accurate points = 4 marks
  • Coherence, structure = 1 mark

Section E (1 mark each)

  • Correct placement + labeling of all 4 = 4 marks
  • Partially correct = 0.5 mark each

Science

🧪 CBSE Class 8 Science – Sample Question Paper (2024–25)

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  • All questions are compulsory.
  • The paper is divided into four sections: A, B, C, and D.
  • Marks for each question are indicated against it.
  • Use diagrams wherever necessary.

🔹 SECTION A – Objective Type Questions (1 × 10 = 10 marks)

Q1. Choose the correct option: (1 × 5 = 5 marks)

  1. Which one of the following is a renewable source of energy?
    (a) Coal
    (b) Petroleum
    (c) Natural Gas
    (d) Biomass
  2. Which microorganism is used in the production of alcohol?
    (a) Bacteria
    (b) Virus
    (c) Algae
    (d) Yeast
  3. The loudness of sound depends on:
    (a) Amplitude
    (b) Frequency
    (c) Wavelength
    (d) Time period
  4. Which one is an example of a non-luminous object?
    (a) Candle flame
    (b) Torch
    (c) Moon
    (d) Electric bulb
  5. What is the SI unit of pressure?
    (a) Newton
    (b) Pascal
    (c) Joule
    (d) Watt

Q2. Fill in the blanks: (1 × 5 = 5 marks)

  1. _________ is the process of transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma.
  2. Reaching the age of _________ is marked by physical and hormonal changes in the body.
  3. The ____________ end of a freely suspended bar magnet points towards the north.
  4. Petroleum is also known as ___________.
  5. The frictional force exerted by fluids is called _________.

🔹 SECTION B – Very Short Answer Questions (2 × 6 = 12 marks)

(Answer each in 30–40 words)

Q3. What is crop rotation? Why is it beneficial?
Q4. Define adolescence. Mention any two changes observed during this stage.
Q5. Differentiate between biodegradable and non-biodegradable materials with one example each.
Q6. What is electric conductivity? Name one good and one poor conductor.
Q7. Write two ways to conserve forests and wildlife.
Q8. What is the function of the placenta during reproduction in mammals?

🔹 SECTION C – Short Answer Questions (3 × 8 = 24 marks)

(Answer each in 60–80 words)

Q9. Describe three important agricultural practices followed in crop production.
Q10. What are the advantages and disadvantages of friction?
Q11. Explain with a diagram how pressure in liquids increases with depth.
Q12. How does the human voice box (larynx) produce sound?
Q13. Describe the types of reproduction in animals with suitable examples.
Q14. What are the harmful effects of acid rain caused by air pollution?
Q15. Explain how the phenomenon of reflection of light is used in daily life.
Q16. Distinguish between conductors and insulators with two examples of each.

🔹 SECTION D – Long Answer Questions (5 × 4 = 20 marks)

(Answer each in 100–120 words)

Q17. Explain the process of nitrogen fixation and its importance for agriculture.
OR
Describe any three methods to prevent depletion of fossil fuels.

Q18. What safety measures should be taken during lightning and thunder? Explain how lightning is caused.
OR
Define earthquake. How can you prepare your home to minimize earthquake damage?

Q19. Explain the structure and function of the human female reproductive system. Draw a well-labeled diagram.
OR
What are the causes of water and air pollution? Suggest three preventive measures for each.

Q20. Describe the working of a simple electric circuit with a battery, bulb, and switch. Draw a circuit diagram and explain the role of each component.
OR
What is the principle of shadow formation? Describe an activity to demonstrate the formation of shadows.

🔹 SECTION E – Diagram and Skill-Based Question (2 × 2 = 4 marks)

Q21. Label the parts A and B in the given diagram of the human ear. Write their functions.
Q22. Observe the diagram of a plant and identify the male and female reproductive parts. Mention their roles.

✅ Answer Key / Marking Scheme

Section A (1 mark each)

  1. (d) Biomass
  2. (d) Yeast
  3. (a) Amplitude
  4. (c) Moon
  5. (b) Pascal
  6. Pollination
  7. Adolescence
  8. North
  9. Black Gold
  10. Drag

Section B (2 marks each)

  • Each question must be brief and to the point.
  • Correct explanation = 2 marks

Section C (3 marks each)

  • Three correct points or explanation with clarity = 3 marks
  • Partial answer = 1.5 or 2 marks

Section D (5 marks each)

  • 4–5 key points with correct explanation = 5 marks
  • Diagram (if applicable) = 1 mark
  • Coherence & language = 1 mark

Section E (2 marks each)

  • Correct labeling = 1 mark
  • Correct function/identification = 1 mark

✏️ Note to Teachers:

You may modify the values, labeling, and real-life application questions based on students’ levels. Use diagrams, flowcharts, and activities in assessment to encourage visual learning.